ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2019 Retake
ACTUAL EXAM 2026/2027 | All Questions
Correctly Answered | Verified Q&A | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Foundations of Nursing Practice (Questions 1–25)
Q1: A nurse is caring for a patient who has been placed on Contact Precautions for a Clostridioides
difficile infection. Which personal protective equipment (PPE) must the nurse don before entering the
room?
A. Gown and gloves only
B. Gown, gloves, and a surgical mask
C. Gown, gloves, and an N95 respirator
D. Gloves only, since C. difficile is not airborne
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The best answer is A. C. difficile is transmitted through direct contact with contaminated
surfaces or fecal matter, so a gown and gloves are all that's needed. Remember that standard
precautions are always in play, but contact precautions specifically add the gown and gloves to protect
against skin and clothing contamination. A mask isn't necessary here because this organism doesn't
spread through respiratory droplets or airborne routes.
Q2: A nurse is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection of enoxaparin to a patient. Which angle
should the nurse use for the needle insertion?
A. 15 degrees
B. 45 degrees
C. 90 degrees
D. 15 to 30 degrees
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. For a subcutaneous injection like enoxaparin, you want to deposit the
medication into the fatty tissue just beneath the skin, and a 45-degree angle helps you hit that sweet
spot without going too deep into muscle. A 90-degree angle is more appropriate for intramuscular
,injections, and 15 degrees is really more of an intradermal technique. This aligns with the principle that
subcutaneous tissue has less vascularity, so the angle matters for proper absorption.
Q3: A nurse is reviewing a patient's vital signs and notes a blood pressure of 92/58 mmHg, heart rate of
110 bpm, respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min, and temperature of 36.8°C (98.2°F). The patient reports
feeling dizzy when standing. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Notify the provider immediately of the hypotension
B. Assist the patient to a supine position and elevate the legs
C. Recheck the blood pressure in 15 minutes
D. Document the findings and continue with routine care
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. This patient is showing signs of orthostatic hypotension with
compensatory tachycardia, and the immediate priority is safety—getting them lying down with legs
elevated helps promote venous return to the heart and brain. Remember that in any situation where a
patient feels dizzy or lightheaded, preventing a fall comes first. You can notify the provider and recheck
vitals after the patient is safe and stable.
Q4: A nurse is caring for a patient with a stage 2 pressure injury on the sacrum. Which description best
matches what the nurse would expect to see during the skin assessment?
A. Full-thickness tissue loss with visible subcutaneous fat
B. Non-blanchable erythema of intact skin
C. Partial-thickness loss of skin with a shallow open ulcer and a red-pink wound bed
D. Full-thickness tissue loss with exposed muscle, tendon, or bone
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is C. A stage 2 pressure injury is essentially a shallow open wound where the
top layers of skin have broken down, but you haven't gone deep enough to see fat, muscle, or bone. The
wound bed looks pink or red because the dermis is exposed. Remember that stage 1 is just non-
blanchable redness on intact skin, stage 3 shows subcutaneous fat, and stage 4 goes down to muscle or
bone—so stage 2 sits right in the middle of that progression.
Q5: A nurse is preparing to delegate tasks to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) on a busy medical-
surgical unit. Which task is most appropriate to delegate to the UAP?
A. Assessing a postoperative patient's incision for signs of infection
B. Obtaining a blood glucose reading using a glucometer
C. Administering a scheduled oral antibiotic to a stable patient
D. Teaching a newly diagnosed diabetic patient about foot care
, Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. Obtaining a blood glucose reading with a glucometer is a task that UAPs
are typically trained and allowed to perform under the supervision of a licensed nurse, and it doesn't
require nursing judgment or assessment. Remember that delegation follows the principle that you
delegate tasks, not accountability—so anything requiring assessment, evaluation, teaching, or
medication administration stays with the RN. The UAP can collect data, but the RN interprets it.
Q6: A nurse is caring for a patient who is NPO in preparation for surgery scheduled in 6 hours. The
patient asks for a sip of water to take their daily blood pressure medication. What is the nurse's best
response?
A. "You can have a small sip of water with your pill—it's important to keep your blood pressure
controlled."
B. "I'm sorry, but you're NPO now, so no water at all. We'll hold your blood pressure medication until
after surgery."
C. "A small sip of water with your essential medication is usually acceptable with the surgeon's
approval."
D. "You can have water, but only if you take it with crackers to avoid stomach upset."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is C. In most cases, patients who are NPO for surgery can still take essential
medications like antihypertensives with a small sip of water, but this should be confirmed with the
surgeon or per facility policy. Remember that being NPO doesn't automatically mean withholding all
medications—it's about balancing the risk of aspiration with the risk of uncontrolled chronic conditions.
A blanket "no water" approach could cause more harm than good if the patient's blood pressure spikes.
Q7: A nurse is reviewing a medication administration record (MAR) and sees the following order:
"Furosemide 40 mg PO daily at 0800." The nurse notes that the patient's most recent potassium level
was 3.2 mEq/L. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Administer the furosemide as ordered and document the potassium level
B. Hold the dose and contact the provider about the low potassium
C. Give the furosemide and administer a potassium supplement from the floor stock
D. Recheck the potassium level before giving the medication
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium wasting through
the kidneys, and giving it when the patient is already hypokalemic at 3.2 mEq/L could drop that
potassium even lower and trigger dangerous cardiac arrhythmias. Remember that the normal potassium
range is 3.5–5.0 mEq/L, so 3.2 is below normal and needs provider input before administering a
potassium-depleting drug. You don't give a supplement without an order, and you don't just document
and move on when a lab value contraindicates safe administration.
ACTUAL EXAM 2026/2027 | All Questions
Correctly Answered | Verified Q&A | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Foundations of Nursing Practice (Questions 1–25)
Q1: A nurse is caring for a patient who has been placed on Contact Precautions for a Clostridioides
difficile infection. Which personal protective equipment (PPE) must the nurse don before entering the
room?
A. Gown and gloves only
B. Gown, gloves, and a surgical mask
C. Gown, gloves, and an N95 respirator
D. Gloves only, since C. difficile is not airborne
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The best answer is A. C. difficile is transmitted through direct contact with contaminated
surfaces or fecal matter, so a gown and gloves are all that's needed. Remember that standard
precautions are always in play, but contact precautions specifically add the gown and gloves to protect
against skin and clothing contamination. A mask isn't necessary here because this organism doesn't
spread through respiratory droplets or airborne routes.
Q2: A nurse is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection of enoxaparin to a patient. Which angle
should the nurse use for the needle insertion?
A. 15 degrees
B. 45 degrees
C. 90 degrees
D. 15 to 30 degrees
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. For a subcutaneous injection like enoxaparin, you want to deposit the
medication into the fatty tissue just beneath the skin, and a 45-degree angle helps you hit that sweet
spot without going too deep into muscle. A 90-degree angle is more appropriate for intramuscular
,injections, and 15 degrees is really more of an intradermal technique. This aligns with the principle that
subcutaneous tissue has less vascularity, so the angle matters for proper absorption.
Q3: A nurse is reviewing a patient's vital signs and notes a blood pressure of 92/58 mmHg, heart rate of
110 bpm, respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min, and temperature of 36.8°C (98.2°F). The patient reports
feeling dizzy when standing. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Notify the provider immediately of the hypotension
B. Assist the patient to a supine position and elevate the legs
C. Recheck the blood pressure in 15 minutes
D. Document the findings and continue with routine care
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. This patient is showing signs of orthostatic hypotension with
compensatory tachycardia, and the immediate priority is safety—getting them lying down with legs
elevated helps promote venous return to the heart and brain. Remember that in any situation where a
patient feels dizzy or lightheaded, preventing a fall comes first. You can notify the provider and recheck
vitals after the patient is safe and stable.
Q4: A nurse is caring for a patient with a stage 2 pressure injury on the sacrum. Which description best
matches what the nurse would expect to see during the skin assessment?
A. Full-thickness tissue loss with visible subcutaneous fat
B. Non-blanchable erythema of intact skin
C. Partial-thickness loss of skin with a shallow open ulcer and a red-pink wound bed
D. Full-thickness tissue loss with exposed muscle, tendon, or bone
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is C. A stage 2 pressure injury is essentially a shallow open wound where the
top layers of skin have broken down, but you haven't gone deep enough to see fat, muscle, or bone. The
wound bed looks pink or red because the dermis is exposed. Remember that stage 1 is just non-
blanchable redness on intact skin, stage 3 shows subcutaneous fat, and stage 4 goes down to muscle or
bone—so stage 2 sits right in the middle of that progression.
Q5: A nurse is preparing to delegate tasks to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) on a busy medical-
surgical unit. Which task is most appropriate to delegate to the UAP?
A. Assessing a postoperative patient's incision for signs of infection
B. Obtaining a blood glucose reading using a glucometer
C. Administering a scheduled oral antibiotic to a stable patient
D. Teaching a newly diagnosed diabetic patient about foot care
, Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. Obtaining a blood glucose reading with a glucometer is a task that UAPs
are typically trained and allowed to perform under the supervision of a licensed nurse, and it doesn't
require nursing judgment or assessment. Remember that delegation follows the principle that you
delegate tasks, not accountability—so anything requiring assessment, evaluation, teaching, or
medication administration stays with the RN. The UAP can collect data, but the RN interprets it.
Q6: A nurse is caring for a patient who is NPO in preparation for surgery scheduled in 6 hours. The
patient asks for a sip of water to take their daily blood pressure medication. What is the nurse's best
response?
A. "You can have a small sip of water with your pill—it's important to keep your blood pressure
controlled."
B. "I'm sorry, but you're NPO now, so no water at all. We'll hold your blood pressure medication until
after surgery."
C. "A small sip of water with your essential medication is usually acceptable with the surgeon's
approval."
D. "You can have water, but only if you take it with crackers to avoid stomach upset."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is C. In most cases, patients who are NPO for surgery can still take essential
medications like antihypertensives with a small sip of water, but this should be confirmed with the
surgeon or per facility policy. Remember that being NPO doesn't automatically mean withholding all
medications—it's about balancing the risk of aspiration with the risk of uncontrolled chronic conditions.
A blanket "no water" approach could cause more harm than good if the patient's blood pressure spikes.
Q7: A nurse is reviewing a medication administration record (MAR) and sees the following order:
"Furosemide 40 mg PO daily at 0800." The nurse notes that the patient's most recent potassium level
was 3.2 mEq/L. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Administer the furosemide as ordered and document the potassium level
B. Hold the dose and contact the provider about the low potassium
C. Give the furosemide and administer a potassium supplement from the floor stock
D. Recheck the potassium level before giving the medication
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium wasting through
the kidneys, and giving it when the patient is already hypokalemic at 3.2 mEq/L could drop that
potassium even lower and trigger dangerous cardiac arrhythmias. Remember that the normal potassium
range is 3.5–5.0 mEq/L, so 3.2 is below normal and needs provider input before administering a
potassium-depleting drug. You don't give a supplement without an order, and you don't just document
and move on when a lab value contraindicates safe administration.
