CNIM FINAL PAPER TESTED QUESTIONS
WITH COMPLETE ANSWER KEY
●● What is not an advantage of epidural recordings?
Answer: Absence of significant artifact
●● The stimulation rate is determined by the
Answer: analysis time
●● Somatosensory evoked potentials are less reliable in patients with ?
Answer: Neuromuscular disease
●● When placing PTN stimulator you should not
Answer: Secure the tape and bands around the whole ankle
●● A differential amplifier with a Gain of 1,000,000 has a 0.2 μV signal
at its positive input and a 0.8 μV signal at its negative input. The output
will be:
Answer: A downward peak of 0.6V
●● The lumbar potential is generated from
Answer: Post-synaptic responses
,●● The P31 response to posterior tibial nerve stimulation
Answer: Is recordable over a generalized region of scalp
●● Which of the following has the greatest effect on SEP monitoring?
Answer: Sevoflurane
●● A shocking sensation that occurs throughout the body during neck
flexion is called
Answer: L'Hermittes sign
●● Lowering the SSEP hicut filter from 500 Hz to 200 Hz may cause the
cortical peaks to:
Answer: Appear longer in latency
●● How many waves of a 60 Hz signal should you see in a 250 mS
sweep?
Answer: 15
●● Activation of an action potential of a neuron will depend on:
Answer: Its membrane potential based on the spatiotemporal summation
of its excitatory and inhibitory inputs
,●● From left to right pre-auricular points is measured 30 cm. The C3
electrode is located:
Answer: 9 cm medial to the left pre-auricular point
●● The most frequent source of patient infection in the operating room
derives from:
Answer: The patient's own endogenous flora
●● What is the maximum time in which to expect EEG changes
following cross clamping of the carotid?
Answer: Two minutes
●● Cranial nerve IV can be monitored using electrodes inserted into the
Answer: Superior oblique
●● According to the nurses guidelines how far do you need to be from
the sterile field?
Answer: 18 inches
●● When no phase reversal is present in an anterior-posterior cortical
grid recording:
Answer: The maximum amplitude response is closest to the central
sulcus
, ●● EEG will most likely disappear at what body temperature
Answer: 16 degrees C
●● Epileptiform discharges can be localized by:
Answer: A phase reversal between two channels
●● Why is platinum used in epidural recordings
Answer: Other metals become toxic when current is applied to them due
to the ionic
●● What will most likely effect SSEPs?
Answer: Spinal cord tumor
●● Excessive cerumen may cause
Answer: Absence of the BAER
●● Which of the following can increase SEP amplitude?
Answer: Etomidate
●● Which montage would you use to confirm a change in the Cz'-Fz
cortical response to PTN stimulation?
Answer: Cpc-Cpi
WITH COMPLETE ANSWER KEY
●● What is not an advantage of epidural recordings?
Answer: Absence of significant artifact
●● The stimulation rate is determined by the
Answer: analysis time
●● Somatosensory evoked potentials are less reliable in patients with ?
Answer: Neuromuscular disease
●● When placing PTN stimulator you should not
Answer: Secure the tape and bands around the whole ankle
●● A differential amplifier with a Gain of 1,000,000 has a 0.2 μV signal
at its positive input and a 0.8 μV signal at its negative input. The output
will be:
Answer: A downward peak of 0.6V
●● The lumbar potential is generated from
Answer: Post-synaptic responses
,●● The P31 response to posterior tibial nerve stimulation
Answer: Is recordable over a generalized region of scalp
●● Which of the following has the greatest effect on SEP monitoring?
Answer: Sevoflurane
●● A shocking sensation that occurs throughout the body during neck
flexion is called
Answer: L'Hermittes sign
●● Lowering the SSEP hicut filter from 500 Hz to 200 Hz may cause the
cortical peaks to:
Answer: Appear longer in latency
●● How many waves of a 60 Hz signal should you see in a 250 mS
sweep?
Answer: 15
●● Activation of an action potential of a neuron will depend on:
Answer: Its membrane potential based on the spatiotemporal summation
of its excitatory and inhibitory inputs
,●● From left to right pre-auricular points is measured 30 cm. The C3
electrode is located:
Answer: 9 cm medial to the left pre-auricular point
●● The most frequent source of patient infection in the operating room
derives from:
Answer: The patient's own endogenous flora
●● What is the maximum time in which to expect EEG changes
following cross clamping of the carotid?
Answer: Two minutes
●● Cranial nerve IV can be monitored using electrodes inserted into the
Answer: Superior oblique
●● According to the nurses guidelines how far do you need to be from
the sterile field?
Answer: 18 inches
●● When no phase reversal is present in an anterior-posterior cortical
grid recording:
Answer: The maximum amplitude response is closest to the central
sulcus
, ●● EEG will most likely disappear at what body temperature
Answer: 16 degrees C
●● Epileptiform discharges can be localized by:
Answer: A phase reversal between two channels
●● Why is platinum used in epidural recordings
Answer: Other metals become toxic when current is applied to them due
to the ionic
●● What will most likely effect SSEPs?
Answer: Spinal cord tumor
●● Excessive cerumen may cause
Answer: Absence of the BAER
●● Which of the following can increase SEP amplitude?
Answer: Etomidate
●● Which montage would you use to confirm a change in the Cz'-Fz
cortical response to PTN stimulation?
Answer: Cpc-Cpi
