NU NUR 320 Module 2 (pdf) | 2026/2027 | Pharmacology for Nursing
Practice Q&A | Nursing
1. A patient is prescribed a non-selective beta-blocker for hypertension. The
nurse understands that this drug class works by blocking beta-1 receptors in
the heart and beta-2 receptors in the lungs. Which of the following adverse
effects is specific to beta-2 receptor blockade?
A) Bradycardia
B) Bronchospasm
C) Hypotension
D) Decreased cardiac output
Correct Answer: Bronchospasm
Rationale: Non-selective beta-blockers block both beta-1 (cardiac) and beta-2
(pulmonary and vascular) receptors. Blockade of beta-2 receptors in the
lungs can cause bronchospasm, making these drugs contraindicated in
patients with asthma or COPD. Bradycardia, hypotension, and decreased
cardiac output result from beta-1 blockade.
2. A patient with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. The nurse understands
that this medication increases cardiac contractility through which
mechanism?
A) Blocking the sodium-potassium ATPase pump
B) Activating beta-1 receptors
C) Inhibiting phosphodiesterase
D) Blocking calcium channels
Correct Answer: Blocking the sodium-potassium ATPase pump
,Rationale: Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that inhibits the sodium-potassium
ATPase pump in cardiac cells. This leads to increased intracellular sodium,
which promotes calcium influx via the sodium-calcium exchanger, ultimately
increasing the force of myocardial contraction.
3. A patient is prescribed furosemide for the management of heart failure.
The nurse should monitor the patient for which of the following electrolyte
imbalances?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hyponatremia
C) Hypokalemia
D) Hypercalcemia
Correct Answer: Hypokalemia
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits sodium and chloride
reabsorption in the ascending loop of Henle, leading to increased excretion of
potassium as well. Hypokalemia is a common adverse effect and can
predispose patients to cardiac dysrhythmias.
4. The nurse is administering an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)
inhibitor to a patient with hypertension. Which of the following is a priority
nursing action prior to administration?
A) Assess the patient's heart rate
B) Assess the patient's blood pressure
C) Assess the patient's respiratory rate
D) Assess the patient's temperature
Correct Answer: Assess the patient's blood pressure
,Rationale: ACE inhibitors can cause significant hypotension, especially with
the first dose. The nurse should assess the patient's blood pressure before
administration and monitor for signs of hypotension such as dizziness or
lightheadedness.
5. A patient is prescribed atorvastatin for hyperlipidemia. The nurse should
teach the patient to report which of the following adverse effects
immediately?
A) Dry mouth
B) Constipation
C) Unexplained muscle pain or weakness
D) Headache
Correct Answer: Unexplained muscle pain or weakness
Rationale: Atorvastatin is a HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor that can cause
myopathy and rhabdomyolysis, a serious condition characterized by muscle
breakdown. Patients should be instructed to report unexplained muscle pain,
tenderness, or weakness immediately.
6. A patient is prescribed an anticoagulant for the prevention of deep vein
thrombosis. Which of the following laboratory values is most important to
monitor for a patient taking warfarin?
A) Platelet count
B) Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
C) International normalized ratio (INR)
D) Bleeding time
Correct Answer: International normalized ratio (INR)
, Rationale: Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist that prolongs the prothrombin
time (PT). The INR is a standardized measure of PT and is used to monitor
warfarin therapy to maintain a therapeutic level and prevent bleeding or
clotting complications.
7. A patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease is prescribed ibuprofen for
arthritis. The nurse should be concerned about this prescription because:
A) Ibuprofen increases gastric acid secretion
B) Ibuprofen can cause gastrointestinal bleeding
C) Ibuprofen decreases platelet aggregation
D) Ibuprofen is contraindicated with all other pain medications
Correct Answer: Ibuprofen can cause gastrointestinal bleeding
Rationale: Ibuprofen is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that
inhibits prostaglandin synthesis, which can lead to gastrointestinal mucosal
damage and bleeding. This risk is increased in patients with a history of
peptic ulcer disease.
8. A patient is prescribed an opioid analgesic for severe pain. Which of the
following is a common adverse effect of opioid therapy?
A) Diarrhea
B) Constipation
C) Hypertension
D) Tachycardia
Correct Answer: Constipation
Rationale: Opioids activate mu receptors in the gastrointestinal tract,
decreasing peristalsis and increasing smooth muscle tone, leading to
Practice Q&A | Nursing
1. A patient is prescribed a non-selective beta-blocker for hypertension. The
nurse understands that this drug class works by blocking beta-1 receptors in
the heart and beta-2 receptors in the lungs. Which of the following adverse
effects is specific to beta-2 receptor blockade?
A) Bradycardia
B) Bronchospasm
C) Hypotension
D) Decreased cardiac output
Correct Answer: Bronchospasm
Rationale: Non-selective beta-blockers block both beta-1 (cardiac) and beta-2
(pulmonary and vascular) receptors. Blockade of beta-2 receptors in the
lungs can cause bronchospasm, making these drugs contraindicated in
patients with asthma or COPD. Bradycardia, hypotension, and decreased
cardiac output result from beta-1 blockade.
2. A patient with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. The nurse understands
that this medication increases cardiac contractility through which
mechanism?
A) Blocking the sodium-potassium ATPase pump
B) Activating beta-1 receptors
C) Inhibiting phosphodiesterase
D) Blocking calcium channels
Correct Answer: Blocking the sodium-potassium ATPase pump
,Rationale: Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that inhibits the sodium-potassium
ATPase pump in cardiac cells. This leads to increased intracellular sodium,
which promotes calcium influx via the sodium-calcium exchanger, ultimately
increasing the force of myocardial contraction.
3. A patient is prescribed furosemide for the management of heart failure.
The nurse should monitor the patient for which of the following electrolyte
imbalances?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hyponatremia
C) Hypokalemia
D) Hypercalcemia
Correct Answer: Hypokalemia
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits sodium and chloride
reabsorption in the ascending loop of Henle, leading to increased excretion of
potassium as well. Hypokalemia is a common adverse effect and can
predispose patients to cardiac dysrhythmias.
4. The nurse is administering an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)
inhibitor to a patient with hypertension. Which of the following is a priority
nursing action prior to administration?
A) Assess the patient's heart rate
B) Assess the patient's blood pressure
C) Assess the patient's respiratory rate
D) Assess the patient's temperature
Correct Answer: Assess the patient's blood pressure
,Rationale: ACE inhibitors can cause significant hypotension, especially with
the first dose. The nurse should assess the patient's blood pressure before
administration and monitor for signs of hypotension such as dizziness or
lightheadedness.
5. A patient is prescribed atorvastatin for hyperlipidemia. The nurse should
teach the patient to report which of the following adverse effects
immediately?
A) Dry mouth
B) Constipation
C) Unexplained muscle pain or weakness
D) Headache
Correct Answer: Unexplained muscle pain or weakness
Rationale: Atorvastatin is a HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor that can cause
myopathy and rhabdomyolysis, a serious condition characterized by muscle
breakdown. Patients should be instructed to report unexplained muscle pain,
tenderness, or weakness immediately.
6. A patient is prescribed an anticoagulant for the prevention of deep vein
thrombosis. Which of the following laboratory values is most important to
monitor for a patient taking warfarin?
A) Platelet count
B) Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
C) International normalized ratio (INR)
D) Bleeding time
Correct Answer: International normalized ratio (INR)
, Rationale: Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist that prolongs the prothrombin
time (PT). The INR is a standardized measure of PT and is used to monitor
warfarin therapy to maintain a therapeutic level and prevent bleeding or
clotting complications.
7. A patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease is prescribed ibuprofen for
arthritis. The nurse should be concerned about this prescription because:
A) Ibuprofen increases gastric acid secretion
B) Ibuprofen can cause gastrointestinal bleeding
C) Ibuprofen decreases platelet aggregation
D) Ibuprofen is contraindicated with all other pain medications
Correct Answer: Ibuprofen can cause gastrointestinal bleeding
Rationale: Ibuprofen is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that
inhibits prostaglandin synthesis, which can lead to gastrointestinal mucosal
damage and bleeding. This risk is increased in patients with a history of
peptic ulcer disease.
8. A patient is prescribed an opioid analgesic for severe pain. Which of the
following is a common adverse effect of opioid therapy?
A) Diarrhea
B) Constipation
C) Hypertension
D) Tachycardia
Correct Answer: Constipation
Rationale: Opioids activate mu receptors in the gastrointestinal tract,
decreasing peristalsis and increasing smooth muscle tone, leading to
