FOR PROBLEMS-SAFETY,
PATHOLOGIES & DIAGNOSES |
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100 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
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EDCO 820 QUIZ 3: ASSESSING FOR PROBLEMS-SAFETY, PATHOLOGIES & DIAGNOSES | QUESTIONS
AND ANSWERS | 2026 UPDATE. It contains 100 carefully selected questions that reflect the most current exam
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explains the underlying pathophysiology, pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
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Review Summary 100 Questions
Foundations - Application - EDCO 820 3 Assessing FOR Problems Safety Pathologies & Diagnoses AND
2026 Update Counseling Education EDCO 820 Graduate
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Content Area Questions Key Topics
RISK Assessment AND 1-17 Disorder, Distinguishes, Clinician, Symptoms, History
Safety Planning
Suicide AND Self-harm 18-34 Episode, Disorder, Strongly, Suicide RISK, Reports
Assessment
Violence AND Aggression 35-51 Disorder, Potential, Combination, Suicide, Context
Assessment
Substance USE AND 52-68 Disorder, Reports, Counselor, Symptoms, Personality
Addiction Assessment
Psychiatric Diagnoses AND 69-85 Pattern, Clinician, Disorder, Suicidal, Assessing
Differential Diagnosis
Medical AND Neurological 86-100 Suicide, History, Suicidal, Diagnosis, Disorder
Conditions Mimicking
Psychiatric Symptoms
TOTAL 100 All questions include answers and detailed rationales
,Section A - RISK Assessment AND Safety Planning
Q1.
A clinician is conducting a suicide risk assessment using the Collaborative Assessment
and Management of Suicidality (CAMS) framework. Which of the following best
distinguishes CAMS from traditional risk assessment approaches?
A. CAMS relies primarily on actuarial risk B. CAMS emphasizes a collaborative,
prediction tools to determine level of risk. therapeutic alliance and uses the Suicide
Status Form as a guide.
C. CAMS mandates hospitalization for any D. CAMS focuses exclusively on risk factors
patient with suicidal ideation. and avoids discussing protective factors.
Correct: B - CAMS emphasizes a collaborative, therapeutic alliance and uses the Suicide
Status Form as a guide.
Rationale:CAMS is a therapeutic framework that integrates assessment and treatment, using
the Suicide Status Form to collaboratively identify drivers of suicidality. It does not rely on
actuarial tools alone, nor does it mandate hospitalization; it emphasizes outpatient
management when possible. It actively incorporates protective factors, making B the correct
answer.
Q2.
In the context of structured professional judgment (SPJ) for violence risk, which of the
following is a critical limitation when using tools like the HCR-20?
A. They are designed to predict future B. They require a structured interview that
violence with absolute certainty. must be administered by a licensed
psychologist.
C. They may not fully capture idiographic D. They are primarily used for post-dictive
factors that are unique to the individual analysis rather than prospective risk
case. assessment.
Correct: C - They may not fully capture idiographic factors that are unique to the
individual case.
Rationale:SPJ tools like the HCR-20 integrate nomothetic risk factors with idiographic
considerations, but they are not exhaustive and require clinical judgment to incorporate
case-specific factors. They do not claim absolute certainty, do not require a licensed
psychologist, and are used prospectively. Thus, C is correct.
Q3.
A clinician is using the MINI (Mini-International Neuropsychiatric Interview) to assess a
client. Which of the following best describes the primary advantage of the MINI over
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, Section A - RISK Assessment AND Safety Planning
unstructured clinical interviews?
A. It provides a comprehensive personality B. It is designed to be administered in a
assessment. short time while maintaining diagnostic
validity.
C. It eliminates the need for clinical D. It focuses solely on psychotic disorders.
judgment in diagnosis.
Correct: B - It is designed to be administered in a short time while maintaining diagnostic
validity.
Rationale:The MINI is a short structured diagnostic interview designed to quickly screen for
DSM and ICD disorders with good validity and reliability. It does not assess personality
comprehensively, still requires clinical judgment, and covers a range of disorders beyond
psychosis. Hence B is correct.
Q4.
A client presents with persistent depressive symptoms and a history of hypomanic
episodes lasting 2 days. According to DSM-5-TR, which of the following is the most
accurate diagnostic consideration?
A. The client meets criteria for Bipolar II B. The client meets criteria for Cyclothymic
Disorder because hypomania is present. Disorder if the pattern has persisted for at
least 2 years.
C. The client cannot be diagnosed with D. The client should be diagnosed with
Bipolar II because hypomanic episodes Major Depressive Disorder with mixed
must last at least 4 days. features.
Correct: C - The client cannot be diagnosed with Bipolar II because hypomanic episodes
must last at least 4 days.
Rationale:In DSM-5-TR, hypomanic episodes require a duration of at least 4 consecutive
days. Episodes lasting 2 days do not meet full criteria, but they may be classified as 'other
specified bipolar and related disorder' or contribute to a cyclothymic disorder if the overall
pattern meets its criteria. Thus, Bipolar II cannot be diagnosed, making C correct.
Q5.
Which of the following ethical principles is most directly challenged when a counselor
breaks confidentiality to warn a third party of a credible threat?
A. Beneficence B. Autonomy
C. Justice D. Fidelity
Correct: B - Autonomy
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