ATI RN PHARMACOLOGY PROCTORED EXAM TEST BANK 2026 ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS ALREADY A GRADED WITH EXPERT FEEDBACK |CURRENTLY TESTING |NEW AND REVISED

ATI RN PHARMACOLOGY PROCTORED EXAM TEST BANK 2026 ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS ALREADY A GRADED WITH EXPERT FEEDBACK |CURRENTLY TESTING |NEW AND REVISED 300 Questions • Answers • Brief Clinical Rationales 2026 PRACTICE EDITION FORMAT Four-option multiple choice Correct answer highlighted Clinical rationale after each question   QUESTIONS 1–25 1. A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which nursing action is appropriate? A. Use the TPN line for all medications B. Stop glucose monitoring C. Monitor the client's weight regularly D. Leave the solution unrefrigerated for days ANSWER — C. Monitor the client's weight regularly Rationale: Weight trends help evaluate nutrition and fluid status. 2. A nurse is preparing to administer a medication. Which action best verifies the correct client? A. Ask the roommate to confirm the name B. Identify the client by diagnosis only C. Use two client identifiers D. Use the room number ANSWER — C. Use two client identifiers Rationale: Two identifiers such as name and date of birth reduce wrong-client medication errors. 3. A nurse is mixing regular insulin with NPH insulin. Which action is correct? A. Draw regular insulin before NPH insulin B. Mix insulin glargine with NPH C. Shake regular insulin vigorously D. Draw NPH first ANSWER — A. Draw regular insulin before NPH insulin Rationale: Clear before cloudy prevents contaminating regular insulin with NPH.  4. Which medication should be withheld when a client prescribed nitroglycerin reports recent sildenafil use? A. Acetaminophen B. Nitroglycerin C. Ferrous sulfate D. Famotidine ANSWER — B. Nitroglycerin Rationale: Nitrates and PDE-5 inhibitors can cause profound hypotension when combined. 5. A client receiving morphine by PCA is difficult to arouse and has a respiratory rate of 8/min. What is the priority? A. Give another opioid B. Stop opioid administration as appropriate and support breathing/notify the provider per protocol C. Offer a sedative D. Encourage more PCA doses ANSWER — B. Stop opioid administration as appropriate and support breathing/notify the provider per protocol Rationale: Respiratory depression is a life-threatening opioid adverse effect. 6. Which medication should the nurse anticipate for opioid-induced respiratory depression? A. Naloxone B. Vitamin K C. Protamine D. Flumazenil ANSWER — A. Naloxone Rationale: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist.  7. A client weighs 132 lb and receives 5 mg/kg/day in 4 equal doses. How much per dose? A. 75 mg B. 150 mg C. 25 mg D. 50 mg ANSWER — A. 75 mg Rationale: 132 lb ÷ 2.2 = 60 kg; 5 × 60 = 300 mg/day; 300 ÷ 4 = 75 mg. 8. A client receiving penicillin develops urticaria and wheezing. What is the priority? A. Stop the medication and initiate emergency treatment for an allergic reaction B. Document it as expected C. Give the next dose D. Encourage ambulation ANSWER — A. Stop the medication and initiate emergency treatment for an allergic reaction Rationale: Urticaria and wheezing can indicate anaphylaxis. 9. Which teaching is appropriate for a client taking metronidazole? A. Drink alcohol with each dose B. Avoid alcohol during treatment and for the recommended period afterward C. Double a missed dose D. Stop all fluids ANSWER — B. Avoid alcohol during treatment and for the recommended period afterward Rationale: Alcohol can cause a disulfiram-like reaction with metronidazole.  10. A client taking lithium begins strenuous exercise. Which electrolyte is especially important to monitor? A. Iron B. Sodium C. Calcium only D. Phosphate only ANSWER — B. Sodium Rationale: Changes in sodium and hydration can alter lithium concentration. 11. Which type of infection can metronidazole treat? A. Iron-deficiency anemia B. Hypothyroidism C. Uncomplicated hypertension D. Certain anaerobic infections ANSWER — D. Certain anaerobic infections Rationale: Metronidazole has activity against anaerobic bacteria and certain protozoa. 12. Which finding suggests lithium toxicity? A. Sneezing B. Increased appetite C. Mild thirst only D. Coarse tremor, vomiting, and ataxia ANSWER — D. Coarse tremor, vomiting, and ataxia Rationale: GI and neurologic symptoms can indicate lithium toxicity.  13. A nurse is preparing to administer a medication. Which action best verifies the medication order? A. Compare the prescription with the medication administration record B. Ask another client whether the dose is correct C. Document it before giving it D. Rely only on the package color ANSWER — A. Compare the prescription with the medication administration record Rationale: The prescription and MAR should be reconciled before administration. 14. A new TPN solution is received. Which action is appropriate before infusion? A. Freeze it before use B. Follow storage and warming instructions for the specific product and facility C. Microwave the solution D. Add medications without checking compatibility ANSWER — B. Follow storage and warming instructions for the specific product and facility Rationale: Parenteral nutrition must be stored and prepared according to product and facility requirements. 15. A TPN infusion is unexpectedly interrupted. Which complication is the nurse most concerned about? A. Hypercalcemia B. Hypoglycemia C. Hypertension D. Hypernatremia ANSWER — B. Hypoglycemia Rationale: Abrupt interruption of concentrated dextrose can cause hypoglycemia.  16. Which insulin should not be mixed in the same syringe with another insulin? A. Insulin lispro B. NPH insulin C. Insulin glargine D. Regular insulin ANSWER — C. Insulin glargine Rationale: Glargine is formulated for separate administration. 17. A client taking insulin reports sweating, tremors, and palpitations. Which complication should the nurse suspect? A. Hypercalcemia B. Hypoglycemia C. Hypernatremia D. Hyperkalemia ANSWER — B. Hypoglycemia Rationale: Adrenergic symptoms such as sweating and tremor are common early signs of hypoglycemia. 18. A conscious client has a blood glucose of 54 mg/dL and can swallow safely. What should the nurse give? A. A rapid-acting carbohydrate B. Long-acting insulin C. Potassium chloride D. A sedative ANSWER — A. A rapid-acting carbohydrate Rationale: A conscious client who can swallow should receive a rapid glucose source. 19. Which instruction is appropriate for sublingual nitroglycerin? A. Take it only after a large meal B. Swallow it whole C. Sit or lie down before taking it D. Store it in an open pill organizer ANSWER — C. Sit or lie down before taking it Rationale: Nitroglycerin can cause dizziness and hypotension. 20. Which assessment is most important for a client receiving IV morphine? A. Skin color only B. Hair texture C. Respiratory rate and level of consciousness D. Visual acuity ANSWER — C. Respiratory rate and level of consciousness Rationale: Opioids can cause sedation and respiratory depression.