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Exam (elaborations)

Scorebuilder / Peat Exam Mock Test With Answer Rationales 2026

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SCOREBUILDER / PEAT EXAM MOCK TEST WITH ANSWER RATIONALES 2026

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SCOREBUILDER / PEAT EXAM MOCK TEST
WITH ANSWER RATIONALES 2026

◉ A patient diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis is referred to
physical therapy. The physical therapist observes bilateral thumb
deformities characterized by metacarpophalangeal joint flexion with
interphalangeal hyperextension. Which deformity is MOST
consistent with the described presentation?


1.Boutonniere
2.Swan neck
3.Mallet finger
4.Dupuytren.
Answer: 1. In the thumb, chronic synovitis eventually forces the
metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint into a flexed position. The
associated palmar displacement causes tension on the extensor
mechanism of the interphalangeal (IP) joint resulting in
hyperextension. In the fingers, this deformity presents with flexion
in the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint and extension of the
distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint.


(Goodman - Pathology p. 1267)

,◉ A physical therapist works with a patient recovering from surgery
on gait activities on a level surface. Which value represents the
MAXIMUM amount of knee flexion required to complete the
described activity?


1.0-90 degrees
2.0-60 degrees
3.0-30 degrees
4.0-20 degrees.
Answer: 2.A patient requires 0-60 degrees of knee flexion with gait
on a level surface. The greatest amount of knee flexion is required
from the initial swing to midswing.


(O'Sullivan p. 257)


◉ A physical therapist completes an initial examination of a patient
diagnosed with complete C7 tetraplegia. As part of the clinical
documentation, the therapist classifies the patient using the
American Spinal Injury Association Impairment Scale. Based on this
scale, which degree of impairment would be MOST consistent with
this patient's medical diagnosis?
1.A
2.B
3.C

,4.D.
Answer: 1.The ASIA degree of impairment "A" is typical of a complete
spinal cord injury. This degree is characterized by a full loss of
sensory and motor function below the neurological level of injury.


(O'Sullivan p. 893)


◉ A patient diagnosed with right rotator cuff tendonitis is referred
to physical therapy. As part of the examination, the physical
therapist performs the Hawkins-Kennedy impingement test. Which
shoulder position would be MOST appropriate when performing this
special test?


1.90 degrees of abduction and 30 degrees of horizontal adduction


2.90 degrees of abduction, and 90 degrees of external rotation


3.90 degrees of flexion with 70 degrees of medial rotation


4.Neutral at the patient's side.
Answer: 3.To perform the Hawkins-Kennedy impingement test, the
patient is positioned with the arm in 90 degrees of flexion before
being medially rotated. A positive test may be indicative of shoulder
impingement specifically involving the supraspinatus tendon.

, (Magee p. 315)


◉ A patient diagnosed with complete L3 paraplegia begins gait
training with custom orthotics in an acute rehabilitation hospital.
Which muscle would not contribute to the fluidity of the patient's
gait?
1.Rectus femoris
2.Semitendinosus
3.Iliopsoas
4.Adductor magnus.
Answer: 2.The semitendinosus, in conjunction with the other
hamstrings muscles, is primarily responsible for hip extension and
knee flexion. This muscle is essential to the performance of
functional activities such as rising from a chair and stair climbing
and derives its primary innervation from the L5-S1 nerve roots and
the tibial nerve.


(Kendall p. 418)


◉ A patient has ambulated with a prosthesis since undergoing a
transtibial amputation six years ago. During an examination for an
unrelated diagnosis, the physical therapist observes the patient's
gait pattern. Which of the following is MOST likely to be observed in
relation to the prosthetic limb?

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