1|Page
2026-2027 CJE MATERNITY/MATERNITY CJE
Final Exam Newest Exam Preparation With Complete
Questions And Correct Answers With Rationales |
Already Graded A+||Brand New Version!!
Question 1
A 32-year-old primigravida at 38 weeks gestation presents with a blood
pressure of 148/94 mmHg and 2+ proteinuria. She reports a headache
and epigastric pain. Which of the following is the priority nursing
intervention?
A) Administer magnesium sulfate as prescribed
B) Prepare for immediate cesarean section
C) Place the patient in a left lateral position
D) Administer labetalol 20 mg IV push
Answer: A) Administer magnesium sulfate as prescribed
Rationale: The patient is exhibiting signs of severe preeclampsia with
impending eclampsia, including elevated blood pressure, proteinuria,
headache, and epigastric pain. Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice
to prevent seizures in preeclampsia with severe features. While blood
,2|Page
pressure management and positioning are important, seizure
prophylaxis is the priority. Immediate cesarean section may be needed
but is not the first intervention. Labetalol may be given for blood
pressure control but does not address seizure prevention.
Question 2
A patient in active labor is receiving oxytocin for induction. The fetal
heart rate tracing shows late decelerations. What is the most
appropriate initial nursing action?
A) Increase the oxytocin infusion rate
B) Position the patient on her left side
C) Administer terbutaline subcutaneously
D) Prepare for an amnioinfusion
Answer: B) Position the patient on her left side
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency. The
initial management includes positioning the mother on her left side to
improve uterine blood flow, discontinuing oxytocin, providing oxygen
via face mask, and increasing intravenous fluids. Increasing oxytocin
would worsen the condition. Terbutaline may be used for tachysystole
but is not the first action. Amnioinfusion is used for variable
decelerations related to cord compression.
Question 3
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A postpartum patient who delivered 6 hours ago has a fundus that is
boggy and displaced to the right. She has saturated two perineal pads
in the last hour. What is the most likely cause of these findings?
A) Retained placental fragments
B) Full bladder
C) Uterine atony
D) Vaginal laceration
Answer: B) Full bladder
Rationale: A boggy fundus displaced to the right is a classic sign of a
distended bladder displacing the uterus. A full bladder can prevent the
uterus from contracting effectively, leading to increased bleeding. The
priority intervention is to have the patient void or catheterize the
bladder. Retained fragments and uterine atony would present with a
boggy fundus but not necessarily displacement. Vaginal lacerations
would cause bleeding without uterine displacement.
Question 4
A pregnant patient at 28 weeks gestation has a positive 1-hour glucose
challenge test with a value of 155 mg/dL. Which of the following is the
next step in management?
A) Diagnose gestational diabetes mellitus
B) Perform a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test
C) Begin insulin therapy
, 4|Page
D) Repeat the 1-hour glucose challenge test
Answer: B) Perform a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test
Rationale: A positive 1-hour glucose challenge test (values greater than
130-140 mg/dL) requires a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test for
definitive diagnosis. Gestational diabetes cannot be diagnosed based on
the screening test alone. Insulin therapy would only be initiated after
diagnosis if diet and exercise are insufficient. Repeating the screening
test is not standard practice.
Question 5
A newborn has Apgar scores of 6 at 1 minute and 8 at 5 minutes. The
heart rate is 110 bpm, respirations are irregular, muscle tone is flexed,
reflex irritability is grimace, and the infant is centrally cyanotic. Which
of the following interventions is most appropriate?
A) Continue routine newborn care
B) Provide positive pressure ventilation
C) Administer naloxone
D) Initiate chest compressions
Answer: A) Continue routine newborn care
Rationale: An Apgar score of 8 at 5 minutes indicates a transition to a
vigorous infant. The component scores suggest that the infant is pink
2026-2027 CJE MATERNITY/MATERNITY CJE
Final Exam Newest Exam Preparation With Complete
Questions And Correct Answers With Rationales |
Already Graded A+||Brand New Version!!
Question 1
A 32-year-old primigravida at 38 weeks gestation presents with a blood
pressure of 148/94 mmHg and 2+ proteinuria. She reports a headache
and epigastric pain. Which of the following is the priority nursing
intervention?
A) Administer magnesium sulfate as prescribed
B) Prepare for immediate cesarean section
C) Place the patient in a left lateral position
D) Administer labetalol 20 mg IV push
Answer: A) Administer magnesium sulfate as prescribed
Rationale: The patient is exhibiting signs of severe preeclampsia with
impending eclampsia, including elevated blood pressure, proteinuria,
headache, and epigastric pain. Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice
to prevent seizures in preeclampsia with severe features. While blood
,2|Page
pressure management and positioning are important, seizure
prophylaxis is the priority. Immediate cesarean section may be needed
but is not the first intervention. Labetalol may be given for blood
pressure control but does not address seizure prevention.
Question 2
A patient in active labor is receiving oxytocin for induction. The fetal
heart rate tracing shows late decelerations. What is the most
appropriate initial nursing action?
A) Increase the oxytocin infusion rate
B) Position the patient on her left side
C) Administer terbutaline subcutaneously
D) Prepare for an amnioinfusion
Answer: B) Position the patient on her left side
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency. The
initial management includes positioning the mother on her left side to
improve uterine blood flow, discontinuing oxytocin, providing oxygen
via face mask, and increasing intravenous fluids. Increasing oxytocin
would worsen the condition. Terbutaline may be used for tachysystole
but is not the first action. Amnioinfusion is used for variable
decelerations related to cord compression.
Question 3
,3|Page
A postpartum patient who delivered 6 hours ago has a fundus that is
boggy and displaced to the right. She has saturated two perineal pads
in the last hour. What is the most likely cause of these findings?
A) Retained placental fragments
B) Full bladder
C) Uterine atony
D) Vaginal laceration
Answer: B) Full bladder
Rationale: A boggy fundus displaced to the right is a classic sign of a
distended bladder displacing the uterus. A full bladder can prevent the
uterus from contracting effectively, leading to increased bleeding. The
priority intervention is to have the patient void or catheterize the
bladder. Retained fragments and uterine atony would present with a
boggy fundus but not necessarily displacement. Vaginal lacerations
would cause bleeding without uterine displacement.
Question 4
A pregnant patient at 28 weeks gestation has a positive 1-hour glucose
challenge test with a value of 155 mg/dL. Which of the following is the
next step in management?
A) Diagnose gestational diabetes mellitus
B) Perform a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test
C) Begin insulin therapy
, 4|Page
D) Repeat the 1-hour glucose challenge test
Answer: B) Perform a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test
Rationale: A positive 1-hour glucose challenge test (values greater than
130-140 mg/dL) requires a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test for
definitive diagnosis. Gestational diabetes cannot be diagnosed based on
the screening test alone. Insulin therapy would only be initiated after
diagnosis if diet and exercise are insufficient. Repeating the screening
test is not standard practice.
Question 5
A newborn has Apgar scores of 6 at 1 minute and 8 at 5 minutes. The
heart rate is 110 bpm, respirations are irregular, muscle tone is flexed,
reflex irritability is grimace, and the infant is centrally cyanotic. Which
of the following interventions is most appropriate?
A) Continue routine newborn care
B) Provide positive pressure ventilation
C) Administer naloxone
D) Initiate chest compressions
Answer: A) Continue routine newborn care
Rationale: An Apgar score of 8 at 5 minutes indicates a transition to a
vigorous infant. The component scores suggest that the infant is pink
