NURSING LICENSURE
HESI OB MATERNITY 2026/2027 Version 1 (V1) GUARANTEED
A+ (All 55 Q's)– Brand New Q&As! Guaranteed Pass A+ (Verified
Answers by Expert) 2026/2027
A+
Complete Blueprint Coverage
A+ 5 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED CORE DOMAINS COVERED RATIONALES INCLUDED
CATEGORIES
Prenatal Care and Maternal Assessment
Labor, Delivery, and Intrapartum Management
Postpartum Care and Complications
Newborn Assessment and Care
High-Risk Pregnancy and Obstetric Emergencies
STUVIAACTUALEXAM
, Prenatal Care and Maternal Assessment
1
A 28-year-old primigravida at 12 weeks gestation presents for her first prenatal visit. She reports mild nausea
and fatigue but no vaginal bleeding or abdominal pain. Her blood pressure is 118/72 mm Hg and fundal height is
consistent with dates. Which laboratory test should the nurse prioritize to establish baseline health status?
A. Complete blood count with differential and platelet count
B. Serum progesterone level to confirm luteal phase support
C. Amniocentesis for karyotype analysis of the fetus
D. 24-hour urine collection for protein and creatinine clearance
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
A complete blood count establishes baseline hemoglobin, hematocrit, and platelet values essential for detecting anemia or
thrombocytopenia common in pregnancy. Serum progesterone is not routinely indicated at this stage, amniocentesis is
reserved for later genetic indications, and 24-hour urine is used when preeclampsia is suspected later in gestation.
2
A pregnant client at 16 weeks gestation asks why she must take prenatal vitamins containing iron even though
she eats a balanced diet. The nurse explains that iron supplementation is critical during the second trimester
primarily because of which physiologic change?
A. Fetal skeletal mineralization requires additional calcium stores
B. Maternal blood volume expands by approximately 40-50 percent
C. Placental production of human chorionic gonadotropin peaks
D. Maternal thyroid hormone synthesis increases dramatically
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Plasma volume expansion of 40-50 percent creates a physiologic dilutional anemia and increases iron demand for maternal
red-cell mass and fetal stores. Calcium needs rise later, hCG peaks earlier, and thyroid changes are managed separately;
iron demand is driven chiefly by expanded blood volume.
, HESI OB MATERNITY 2026/2027 Version 1 (V1) GUARANTEED A+ (All 55 Q's)– Brand New...
3
During a routine prenatal visit at 28 weeks, a client reports new-onset dependent edema in both ankles that
resolves overnight. Blood pressure is 122/78 mm Hg and urine dipstick shows no protein. Which nursing action
is most appropriate?
A. Obtain a 24-hour urine collection for quantitative protein measurement
B. Schedule an immediate biophysical profile to assess fetal well-being
C. Reassure the client that mild dependent edema is common and advise elevation
D. Instruct the client to restrict fluid intake to less than 1.5 liters daily
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Mild dependent edema that resolves with rest is a normal physiologic finding in the third trimester due to venous
compression. Absence of hypertension and proteinuria rules out preeclampsia, so further testing is unnecessary and fluid
restriction is contraindicated.
4
A client at 32 weeks gestation with a history of gestational diabetes is scheduled for a nonstress test. After 20
minutes the tracing shows a baseline fetal heart rate of 140 bpm with moderate variability but only one
acceleration of 15 bpm lasting 15 seconds. What is the most appropriate next nursing action?
A. Immediately prepare the client for an emergency cesarean birth
B. Administer terbutaline to increase fetal movement and accelerations
C. Document the tracing as reactive and discharge the client home
D. Continue the test for an additional 20 minutes to allow for a complete evaluation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
A reactive nonstress test requires two accelerations within 20 minutes; extending the observation window to 40 minutes is
the standard approach when criteria are not initially met. Immediate cesarean is not indicated, tocolytics are inappropriate,
and the tracing is not yet reactive.
5
A primigravida at 10 weeks gestation reports severe nausea and vomiting that has resulted in a 4 kg weight loss
since her last menstrual period. She appears dehydrated and her urine specific gravity is 1.030. Which
laboratory finding would the nurse expect to support a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum?
A. Elevated serum ketones and electrolyte imbalances
B. Decreased serum human chorionic gonadotropin levels
C. Elevated serum alpha-fetoprotein concentration
D. Decreased white-blood-cell count with left shift
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Prolonged vomiting produces starvation ketosis and electrolyte disturbances (hypokalemia, hyponatremia) characteristic of
hyperemesis gravidarum. hCG is typically elevated rather than decreased, AFP is unrelated, and leukocytosis is not a
hallmark finding.
HESI OB MATERNITY 2026/2027 Version 1 (V1) GUARANTEED
A+ (All 55 Q's)– Brand New Q&As! Guaranteed Pass A+ (Verified
Answers by Expert) 2026/2027
A+
Complete Blueprint Coverage
A+ 5 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED CORE DOMAINS COVERED RATIONALES INCLUDED
CATEGORIES
Prenatal Care and Maternal Assessment
Labor, Delivery, and Intrapartum Management
Postpartum Care and Complications
Newborn Assessment and Care
High-Risk Pregnancy and Obstetric Emergencies
STUVIAACTUALEXAM
, Prenatal Care and Maternal Assessment
1
A 28-year-old primigravida at 12 weeks gestation presents for her first prenatal visit. She reports mild nausea
and fatigue but no vaginal bleeding or abdominal pain. Her blood pressure is 118/72 mm Hg and fundal height is
consistent with dates. Which laboratory test should the nurse prioritize to establish baseline health status?
A. Complete blood count with differential and platelet count
B. Serum progesterone level to confirm luteal phase support
C. Amniocentesis for karyotype analysis of the fetus
D. 24-hour urine collection for protein and creatinine clearance
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
A complete blood count establishes baseline hemoglobin, hematocrit, and platelet values essential for detecting anemia or
thrombocytopenia common in pregnancy. Serum progesterone is not routinely indicated at this stage, amniocentesis is
reserved for later genetic indications, and 24-hour urine is used when preeclampsia is suspected later in gestation.
2
A pregnant client at 16 weeks gestation asks why she must take prenatal vitamins containing iron even though
she eats a balanced diet. The nurse explains that iron supplementation is critical during the second trimester
primarily because of which physiologic change?
A. Fetal skeletal mineralization requires additional calcium stores
B. Maternal blood volume expands by approximately 40-50 percent
C. Placental production of human chorionic gonadotropin peaks
D. Maternal thyroid hormone synthesis increases dramatically
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Plasma volume expansion of 40-50 percent creates a physiologic dilutional anemia and increases iron demand for maternal
red-cell mass and fetal stores. Calcium needs rise later, hCG peaks earlier, and thyroid changes are managed separately;
iron demand is driven chiefly by expanded blood volume.
, HESI OB MATERNITY 2026/2027 Version 1 (V1) GUARANTEED A+ (All 55 Q's)– Brand New...
3
During a routine prenatal visit at 28 weeks, a client reports new-onset dependent edema in both ankles that
resolves overnight. Blood pressure is 122/78 mm Hg and urine dipstick shows no protein. Which nursing action
is most appropriate?
A. Obtain a 24-hour urine collection for quantitative protein measurement
B. Schedule an immediate biophysical profile to assess fetal well-being
C. Reassure the client that mild dependent edema is common and advise elevation
D. Instruct the client to restrict fluid intake to less than 1.5 liters daily
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Mild dependent edema that resolves with rest is a normal physiologic finding in the third trimester due to venous
compression. Absence of hypertension and proteinuria rules out preeclampsia, so further testing is unnecessary and fluid
restriction is contraindicated.
4
A client at 32 weeks gestation with a history of gestational diabetes is scheduled for a nonstress test. After 20
minutes the tracing shows a baseline fetal heart rate of 140 bpm with moderate variability but only one
acceleration of 15 bpm lasting 15 seconds. What is the most appropriate next nursing action?
A. Immediately prepare the client for an emergency cesarean birth
B. Administer terbutaline to increase fetal movement and accelerations
C. Document the tracing as reactive and discharge the client home
D. Continue the test for an additional 20 minutes to allow for a complete evaluation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
A reactive nonstress test requires two accelerations within 20 minutes; extending the observation window to 40 minutes is
the standard approach when criteria are not initially met. Immediate cesarean is not indicated, tocolytics are inappropriate,
and the tracing is not yet reactive.
5
A primigravida at 10 weeks gestation reports severe nausea and vomiting that has resulted in a 4 kg weight loss
since her last menstrual period. She appears dehydrated and her urine specific gravity is 1.030. Which
laboratory finding would the nurse expect to support a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum?
A. Elevated serum ketones and electrolyte imbalances
B. Decreased serum human chorionic gonadotropin levels
C. Elevated serum alpha-fetoprotein concentration
D. Decreased white-blood-cell count with left shift
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Prolonged vomiting produces starvation ketosis and electrolyte disturbances (hypokalemia, hyponatremia) characteristic of
hyperemesis gravidarum. hCG is typically elevated rather than decreased, AFP is unrelated, and leukocytosis is not a
hallmark finding.
