NURSING LICENSURE
2026/2027 HESI OB MATERNITY Version 2 (V2) GUARANTEED
A+ (All 55 Q's)– Brand New Q&As! Guaranteed Pass A+ Questions &
Answers (Verified Answers by Expert) 2026/2027
A+
Complete Blueprint Coverage
A+ 5 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED CORE DOMAINS COVERED RATIONALES INCLUDED
CATEGORIES
1. Antepartum Nursing Care
2. Intrapartum Care and Labor Management
3. Postpartum Nursing Care
4. Newborn Assessment and Care
5. High-Risk Obstetric Conditions
STUVIAACTUALEXAM
, 1. Antepartum Nursing Care
Q1
A 28-year-old primigravida at 12 weeks gestation attends her first prenatal visit. The nurse reviews her laboratory
results and notes a hemoglobin of 10.8 g/dL. The client asks about the significance of this finding and possible
interventions. Which action should the nurse prioritize in the plan of care?
A. Recommend immediate iron supplementation and dietary counseling focused on iron-rich foods.
B. Schedule a follow-up hemoglobin check in 4 weeks without additional intervention at this time.
C. Order a complete blood count with differential to evaluate for underlying infection.
D. Advise the client that this value is expected in early pregnancy due to plasma volume expansion.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
A hemoglobin of 10.8 g/dL indicates mild anemia in the first trimester. Iron supplementation combined with dietary counseling is the
appropriate first-line intervention to prevent progression of anemia. Waiting without intervention or attributing the value solely to
hemodilution is not recommended when the value falls below the accepted threshold.
Q2
A pregnant client at 28 weeks gestation reports mild lower back pain and occasional Braxton Hicks contractions. The
nurse performs Leopold maneuvers and notes the fetus is in a longitudinal lie with the head presenting. The client
expresses concern about the frequency of contractions. What is the most appropriate nursing response?
A. Instruct the client to increase fluid intake and rest on her left side, then reassess contraction pattern.
B. Prepare the client for immediate transfer to labor and delivery for possible preterm labor evaluation.
C. Administer a tocolytic agent as ordered and monitor fetal heart rate continuously.
D. Reassure the client that these findings are normal and no further assessment is needed.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Mild Braxton Hicks contractions at 28 weeks are common. Initial management includes hydration and left-side positioning to improve
uteroplacental perfusion and reduce irritability. Immediate transfer or tocolysis is reserved for confirmed preterm labor with
progressive cervical change.
Q3
During a routine prenatal visit at 32 weeks, a multiparous client mentions that she has been experiencing increased
vaginal discharge that is white and milky. She denies itching, odor, or burning. The nurse examines the discharge and
finds no signs of infection. Which teaching point should the nurse emphasize?
A. Explain that leukorrhea is a normal physiologic change related to elevated estrogen levels.
B. Recommend over-the-counter antifungal treatment to prevent yeast infection development.
C. Advise the client to douche daily with a mild vinegar solution for comfort.
D. Schedule an immediate culture and sensitivity test of the vaginal secretions.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Leukorrhea is a normal increase in vaginal discharge during pregnancy caused by hormonal changes. In the absence of infection
signs, no treatment or diagnostic testing is required. Douching is contraindicated in pregnancy.
, Q4
A client at 18 weeks gestation is scheduled for a maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening. She asks the
nurse to explain the purpose of the test and what abnormal results might indicate. How should the nurse respond?
A. The test screens for neural tube defects and abdominal wall defects; elevated levels may indicate anencephaly
or spina bifida.
B. The test primarily detects chromosomal abnormalities such as Down syndrome through direct DNA analysis.
C. An elevated result confirms the presence of a neural tube defect and requires immediate surgical consultation.
D. The screening is used exclusively to determine gestational age accuracy when ultrasound is unavailable.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
MSAFP is a screening test for open neural tube defects and certain abdominal wall defects. Elevated levels prompt further evaluation
with ultrasound and possibly amniocentesis. It is not diagnostic for chromosomal abnormalities and does not confirm a diagnosis by
itself.
Q5
A primigravida at 24 weeks gestation has a 1-hour glucose challenge test result of 148 mg/dL. The nurse explains the
next steps in the diagnostic process for gestational diabetes. Which statement by the client indicates correct
understanding?
A. "I will need a 3-hour glucose tolerance test to confirm whether I have gestational diabetes."
B. "This result means I definitely have gestational diabetes and must start insulin therapy immediately."
C. "I can manage this with diet alone and do not need any further testing at this time."
D. "The elevated value is expected because of the pregnancy hormones and requires no follow-up."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
A 1-hour glucose challenge result of 148 mg/dL exceeds the common screening threshold of 140 mg/dL and requires a diagnostic
3-hour oral glucose tolerance test. A single elevated screen does not confirm gestational diabetes.
Q6
A pregnant client at 10 weeks gestation reports nausea and vomiting that interferes with her ability to keep food down.
She has lost 4 pounds since her last visit. The nurse assesses her for hyperemesis gravidarum. Which laboratory
finding would most support this diagnosis?
A. Elevated urine ketones and electrolyte imbalances consistent with dehydration.
B. Decreased serum human chorionic gonadotropin levels below expected range.
C. Mild elevation of liver enzymes without other clinical signs of illness.
D. Increased white blood cell count suggesting concurrent urinary tract infection.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Hyperemesis gravidarum is characterized by persistent vomiting leading to weight loss, dehydration, and ketonuria. Elevated urine
ketones and electrolyte disturbances are hallmark laboratory findings supporting the diagnosis.
2026/2027 HESI OB MATERNITY Version 2 (V2) GUARANTEED A+ (All 55 Q's)– Brand New... Page 3
2026/2027 HESI OB MATERNITY Version 2 (V2) GUARANTEED
A+ (All 55 Q's)– Brand New Q&As! Guaranteed Pass A+ Questions &
Answers (Verified Answers by Expert) 2026/2027
A+
Complete Blueprint Coverage
A+ 5 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED CORE DOMAINS COVERED RATIONALES INCLUDED
CATEGORIES
1. Antepartum Nursing Care
2. Intrapartum Care and Labor Management
3. Postpartum Nursing Care
4. Newborn Assessment and Care
5. High-Risk Obstetric Conditions
STUVIAACTUALEXAM
, 1. Antepartum Nursing Care
Q1
A 28-year-old primigravida at 12 weeks gestation attends her first prenatal visit. The nurse reviews her laboratory
results and notes a hemoglobin of 10.8 g/dL. The client asks about the significance of this finding and possible
interventions. Which action should the nurse prioritize in the plan of care?
A. Recommend immediate iron supplementation and dietary counseling focused on iron-rich foods.
B. Schedule a follow-up hemoglobin check in 4 weeks without additional intervention at this time.
C. Order a complete blood count with differential to evaluate for underlying infection.
D. Advise the client that this value is expected in early pregnancy due to plasma volume expansion.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
A hemoglobin of 10.8 g/dL indicates mild anemia in the first trimester. Iron supplementation combined with dietary counseling is the
appropriate first-line intervention to prevent progression of anemia. Waiting without intervention or attributing the value solely to
hemodilution is not recommended when the value falls below the accepted threshold.
Q2
A pregnant client at 28 weeks gestation reports mild lower back pain and occasional Braxton Hicks contractions. The
nurse performs Leopold maneuvers and notes the fetus is in a longitudinal lie with the head presenting. The client
expresses concern about the frequency of contractions. What is the most appropriate nursing response?
A. Instruct the client to increase fluid intake and rest on her left side, then reassess contraction pattern.
B. Prepare the client for immediate transfer to labor and delivery for possible preterm labor evaluation.
C. Administer a tocolytic agent as ordered and monitor fetal heart rate continuously.
D. Reassure the client that these findings are normal and no further assessment is needed.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Mild Braxton Hicks contractions at 28 weeks are common. Initial management includes hydration and left-side positioning to improve
uteroplacental perfusion and reduce irritability. Immediate transfer or tocolysis is reserved for confirmed preterm labor with
progressive cervical change.
Q3
During a routine prenatal visit at 32 weeks, a multiparous client mentions that she has been experiencing increased
vaginal discharge that is white and milky. She denies itching, odor, or burning. The nurse examines the discharge and
finds no signs of infection. Which teaching point should the nurse emphasize?
A. Explain that leukorrhea is a normal physiologic change related to elevated estrogen levels.
B. Recommend over-the-counter antifungal treatment to prevent yeast infection development.
C. Advise the client to douche daily with a mild vinegar solution for comfort.
D. Schedule an immediate culture and sensitivity test of the vaginal secretions.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Leukorrhea is a normal increase in vaginal discharge during pregnancy caused by hormonal changes. In the absence of infection
signs, no treatment or diagnostic testing is required. Douching is contraindicated in pregnancy.
, Q4
A client at 18 weeks gestation is scheduled for a maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening. She asks the
nurse to explain the purpose of the test and what abnormal results might indicate. How should the nurse respond?
A. The test screens for neural tube defects and abdominal wall defects; elevated levels may indicate anencephaly
or spina bifida.
B. The test primarily detects chromosomal abnormalities such as Down syndrome through direct DNA analysis.
C. An elevated result confirms the presence of a neural tube defect and requires immediate surgical consultation.
D. The screening is used exclusively to determine gestational age accuracy when ultrasound is unavailable.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
MSAFP is a screening test for open neural tube defects and certain abdominal wall defects. Elevated levels prompt further evaluation
with ultrasound and possibly amniocentesis. It is not diagnostic for chromosomal abnormalities and does not confirm a diagnosis by
itself.
Q5
A primigravida at 24 weeks gestation has a 1-hour glucose challenge test result of 148 mg/dL. The nurse explains the
next steps in the diagnostic process for gestational diabetes. Which statement by the client indicates correct
understanding?
A. "I will need a 3-hour glucose tolerance test to confirm whether I have gestational diabetes."
B. "This result means I definitely have gestational diabetes and must start insulin therapy immediately."
C. "I can manage this with diet alone and do not need any further testing at this time."
D. "The elevated value is expected because of the pregnancy hormones and requires no follow-up."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
A 1-hour glucose challenge result of 148 mg/dL exceeds the common screening threshold of 140 mg/dL and requires a diagnostic
3-hour oral glucose tolerance test. A single elevated screen does not confirm gestational diabetes.
Q6
A pregnant client at 10 weeks gestation reports nausea and vomiting that interferes with her ability to keep food down.
She has lost 4 pounds since her last visit. The nurse assesses her for hyperemesis gravidarum. Which laboratory
finding would most support this diagnosis?
A. Elevated urine ketones and electrolyte imbalances consistent with dehydration.
B. Decreased serum human chorionic gonadotropin levels below expected range.
C. Mild elevation of liver enzymes without other clinical signs of illness.
D. Increased white blood cell count suggesting concurrent urinary tract infection.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Hyperemesis gravidarum is characterized by persistent vomiting leading to weight loss, dehydration, and ketonuria. Elevated urine
ketones and electrolyte disturbances are hallmark laboratory findings supporting the diagnosis.
2026/2027 HESI OB MATERNITY Version 2 (V2) GUARANTEED A+ (All 55 Q's)– Brand New... Page 3
