Latest NCLEX PN Exam 2026 — Real Questions
and Answers with Full Rationales to Guarantee
Your First Attempt Success in NCLEX PN Exams.
1. A charge nurse is making shift assignments for a team that includes an RN, an LPN/LVN, and
an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which client should the charge nurse assign to the
LPN/LVN?
A. A client who requires a sterile dressing change for a surgical wound.
B. A client who needs help ambulating to the bathroom.
C. A client who requires teaching about a new diagnosis of diabetes.
D. A client who needs assistance with feeding.
Answer: A
Rationale: LPN/LVNs can perform sterile dressing changes as it falls within their scope of
practice. Client teaching and initial assessments are typically responsibilities of the RN .
Ambulation and feeding assistance are appropriate tasks for a UAP.
2. A client is placed on contact precautions. What personal protective equipment (PPE) must
the nurse wear when entering the room?
A. Mask and goggles
B. Gown and gloves
C. N95 respirator
D. Gown and mask
Answer: B
Rationale: Contact precautions require gown and gloves to prevent the transmission of
organisms through direct contact. Mask and goggles (A) are used for droplet precautions, while
an N95 respirator (C) is necessary for airborne precautions .
3. The nurse is caring for a client who is post-operative and has a PCA pump with morphine.
The client reports pain of 8/10 despite using the PCA. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Increase the PCA dose without consulting the healthcare provider.
B. Administer a PRN dose of pain medication as prescribed.
,C. Assess the client's pain and the PCA pump's function.
D. Encourage the client to use distraction techniques.
Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse must first assess the situation—evaluate the client's pain and ensure the
PCA pump is functioning correctly. Administering additional medication (B) without assessment
is unsafe.
4. Which action is most important for the nurse to take when preparing to administer a blood
transfusion?
A. Warm the blood to body temperature before infusion.
B. Check vital signs only after the transfusion is complete.
C. Verify the blood product with another licensed nurse.
D. Administer the blood over 2 hours for all clients.
Answer: C
Rationale: Verification of the blood product with another licensed nurse is the most critical
safety step to prevent transfusion reactions from incompatible blood. Vital signs should be
checked before and during the transfusion .
5. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client prescribed warfarin. Which statement
by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I will avoid eating large amounts of spinach and kale."
B. "I should take my medication at the same time every day."
C. "I will use a soft-bristled toothbrush to prevent gum bleeding."
D. "I can take ibuprofen for my headaches."
Answer: D
Rationale: Taking ibuprofen (an NSAID) with warfarin significantly increases the risk of bleeding.
The client should avoid NSAIDs and use acetaminophen for pain instead. The other statements
are correct.
6. A client has an order for a 24-hour urine collection. Which instruction should the nurse
provide?
A. "Save the first void of the morning and then collect all urine for 24 hours."
,B. "Discard the first morning void and then collect all urine for the next 24 hours."
C. "Collect all urine in the container, including the first morning void."
D. "Store the urine container at room temperature during the collection."
Answer: B
Rationale: The 24-hour urine collection begins after discarding the first void, then collecting all
urine for the next 24 hours, including the final void at the end time . The container should be
refrigerated.
7. A client with a seizure disorder has a prescription for phenytoin. Which nursing
intervention is most important for client safety?
A. Pad the side rails of the bed.
B. Place a tongue blade at the bedside.
C. Restrain the client during a seizure.
D. Place the client in a supine position during a seizure.
Answer: A
Rationale: Padding the side rails protects the client from injury during a seizure. Tongue blades
should never be placed in the mouth during a seizure (they can cause injury). Restraining a
client during a seizure is contraindicated, and the client should be placed on their side to
prevent aspiration .
8. A client has an order for a Jackson-Pratt (JP) drain. The nurse notes that the drain has
minimal drainage and the bulb is fully compressed. What should the nurse do?
A. Empty the drain and recompress the bulb.
B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
C. Document the finding and continue to monitor.
D. Remove the drain and apply a sterile dressing.
Answer: A
Rationale: A JP drain works by suction when the bulb is compressed. If the bulb is fully
compressed, it maintains suction. The nurse should empty and recompress the bulb to ensure
continued suction. The provider does not need to be notified unless drainage is excessive or the
drain is not functioning .
, 9. The nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client who is to collect a stool sample for occult
blood. Which statement indicates the client understands the teaching?
A. "I can eat red meat before the test."
B. "I will avoid eating vitamin C-rich foods before the test."
C. "I will collect the sample from the middle of the stool."
D. "I need to bring the sample in a container with a preservative."
Answer: C
Rationale: Stool samples for occult blood should be collected from the middle of the stool to
avoid contamination from the toilet bowl. Red meat and vitamin C should be avoided for 48-72
hours prior to the test.
10. A client is scheduled for surgery and asks the nurse, "Why do I need to sign this consent
form?" What is the nurse's best response?
A. "It gives the hospital permission to perform the surgery."
B. "It allows the doctor to do whatever is necessary during the surgery."
C. "It confirms that you understand the procedure and its risks."
D. "It means you cannot change your mind about the surgery."
Answer: C
Rationale: Informed consent ensures that the client understands the nature of the procedure,
its risks, benefits, and alternatives. It is a legal and ethical requirement that protects the client's
right to make informed decisions about their care .
11. A client has an order for an indwelling urinary catheter insertion. Which action should the
nurse take to maintain sterile technique?
A. Clean the meatus with antiseptic wipes using a circular motion from the outside in.
B. Open the sterile kit and place supplies on the bedside table.
C. Use sterile gloves and maintain a sterile field.
D. Lubricate the catheter with sterile saline.
Answer: C
Rationale: Sterile gloves and a sterile field are essential for maintaining aseptic technique. The
meatus should be cleaned from the inside out, not outside in.
and Answers with Full Rationales to Guarantee
Your First Attempt Success in NCLEX PN Exams.
1. A charge nurse is making shift assignments for a team that includes an RN, an LPN/LVN, and
an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which client should the charge nurse assign to the
LPN/LVN?
A. A client who requires a sterile dressing change for a surgical wound.
B. A client who needs help ambulating to the bathroom.
C. A client who requires teaching about a new diagnosis of diabetes.
D. A client who needs assistance with feeding.
Answer: A
Rationale: LPN/LVNs can perform sterile dressing changes as it falls within their scope of
practice. Client teaching and initial assessments are typically responsibilities of the RN .
Ambulation and feeding assistance are appropriate tasks for a UAP.
2. A client is placed on contact precautions. What personal protective equipment (PPE) must
the nurse wear when entering the room?
A. Mask and goggles
B. Gown and gloves
C. N95 respirator
D. Gown and mask
Answer: B
Rationale: Contact precautions require gown and gloves to prevent the transmission of
organisms through direct contact. Mask and goggles (A) are used for droplet precautions, while
an N95 respirator (C) is necessary for airborne precautions .
3. The nurse is caring for a client who is post-operative and has a PCA pump with morphine.
The client reports pain of 8/10 despite using the PCA. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Increase the PCA dose without consulting the healthcare provider.
B. Administer a PRN dose of pain medication as prescribed.
,C. Assess the client's pain and the PCA pump's function.
D. Encourage the client to use distraction techniques.
Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse must first assess the situation—evaluate the client's pain and ensure the
PCA pump is functioning correctly. Administering additional medication (B) without assessment
is unsafe.
4. Which action is most important for the nurse to take when preparing to administer a blood
transfusion?
A. Warm the blood to body temperature before infusion.
B. Check vital signs only after the transfusion is complete.
C. Verify the blood product with another licensed nurse.
D. Administer the blood over 2 hours for all clients.
Answer: C
Rationale: Verification of the blood product with another licensed nurse is the most critical
safety step to prevent transfusion reactions from incompatible blood. Vital signs should be
checked before and during the transfusion .
5. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client prescribed warfarin. Which statement
by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I will avoid eating large amounts of spinach and kale."
B. "I should take my medication at the same time every day."
C. "I will use a soft-bristled toothbrush to prevent gum bleeding."
D. "I can take ibuprofen for my headaches."
Answer: D
Rationale: Taking ibuprofen (an NSAID) with warfarin significantly increases the risk of bleeding.
The client should avoid NSAIDs and use acetaminophen for pain instead. The other statements
are correct.
6. A client has an order for a 24-hour urine collection. Which instruction should the nurse
provide?
A. "Save the first void of the morning and then collect all urine for 24 hours."
,B. "Discard the first morning void and then collect all urine for the next 24 hours."
C. "Collect all urine in the container, including the first morning void."
D. "Store the urine container at room temperature during the collection."
Answer: B
Rationale: The 24-hour urine collection begins after discarding the first void, then collecting all
urine for the next 24 hours, including the final void at the end time . The container should be
refrigerated.
7. A client with a seizure disorder has a prescription for phenytoin. Which nursing
intervention is most important for client safety?
A. Pad the side rails of the bed.
B. Place a tongue blade at the bedside.
C. Restrain the client during a seizure.
D. Place the client in a supine position during a seizure.
Answer: A
Rationale: Padding the side rails protects the client from injury during a seizure. Tongue blades
should never be placed in the mouth during a seizure (they can cause injury). Restraining a
client during a seizure is contraindicated, and the client should be placed on their side to
prevent aspiration .
8. A client has an order for a Jackson-Pratt (JP) drain. The nurse notes that the drain has
minimal drainage and the bulb is fully compressed. What should the nurse do?
A. Empty the drain and recompress the bulb.
B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
C. Document the finding and continue to monitor.
D. Remove the drain and apply a sterile dressing.
Answer: A
Rationale: A JP drain works by suction when the bulb is compressed. If the bulb is fully
compressed, it maintains suction. The nurse should empty and recompress the bulb to ensure
continued suction. The provider does not need to be notified unless drainage is excessive or the
drain is not functioning .
, 9. The nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client who is to collect a stool sample for occult
blood. Which statement indicates the client understands the teaching?
A. "I can eat red meat before the test."
B. "I will avoid eating vitamin C-rich foods before the test."
C. "I will collect the sample from the middle of the stool."
D. "I need to bring the sample in a container with a preservative."
Answer: C
Rationale: Stool samples for occult blood should be collected from the middle of the stool to
avoid contamination from the toilet bowl. Red meat and vitamin C should be avoided for 48-72
hours prior to the test.
10. A client is scheduled for surgery and asks the nurse, "Why do I need to sign this consent
form?" What is the nurse's best response?
A. "It gives the hospital permission to perform the surgery."
B. "It allows the doctor to do whatever is necessary during the surgery."
C. "It confirms that you understand the procedure and its risks."
D. "It means you cannot change your mind about the surgery."
Answer: C
Rationale: Informed consent ensures that the client understands the nature of the procedure,
its risks, benefits, and alternatives. It is a legal and ethical requirement that protects the client's
right to make informed decisions about their care .
11. A client has an order for an indwelling urinary catheter insertion. Which action should the
nurse take to maintain sterile technique?
A. Clean the meatus with antiseptic wipes using a circular motion from the outside in.
B. Open the sterile kit and place supplies on the bedside table.
C. Use sterile gloves and maintain a sterile field.
D. Lubricate the catheter with sterile saline.
Answer: C
Rationale: Sterile gloves and a sterile field are essential for maintaining aseptic technique. The
meatus should be cleaned from the inside out, not outside in.
