NU 578 PHARMACOLOGY EXAM 1:
2026/2027 QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED
ANSWERS 100% PASS
OVERVIEW:
NU 578 PHARMACOLOGY EXAM 1 covers foundational principles and autonomic
pharmacology. Topics include adrenergic and cholinergic agonists/antagonists,
beta-blockers with ISA, alpha-blockers, clonidine, methyldopa, dobutamine,
dopamine, pharmacokinetics - half-life, absorption, protein binding, P-
glycoprotein, CYP450 interactions, sustained-release, renal assessment in elderly,
adherence, teratogenicity, pregnancy categories, safe prescribing, and antidotes
like physostigmine. Emphasis on receptor selectivity, adverse effects, and clinical
application for advanced practice nurses preparing for safe medication
management.
Correct answer highlighted in bold Green + rationales.
Question 1: A patient is receiving methyldopa (Aldomet) for high blood
pressure. When will the Coomb's test be monitored?
A. At the beginning of treatment
C. At the end of treatment
B. Prior to treatment
D. At 6 months
E. B & D
Rationale: Methyldopa causes positive direct Coombs in 10-20 percent after 6-12
months, leading to hemolytic anemia. Baseline must be prior to treatment and
rechecked at 6 and 12 months.
Question 2: To assess the renal function of 72-year-old, the APN knows to
check which lab value?
A. Urinalysis
, B. Creatinine clearance
C. BUN
D. Creatinine
Rationale: In elderly, serum creatinine alone overestimates GFR due to low muscle
mass. Creatinine clearance or eGFR is best indicator of renal function.
Question 3: A patient is taking Clopidogrel, a drug to prevent platelet
aggregation. He develops heartburn and begins to take Omeprazole, a proton
pump inhibitor. The NP knows that the interaction of the two drugs may result
in:
A. A complexation of the two drugs in the gut. The patient should take them 2 hours apart.
B. An elevation of Omeprazole in the blood. Enhanced effects may be seen.
C. An elevation of Clopidogrel in the blood. Enhanced effects may be seen.
D. A decreased effect of the Omeprazole due to metabolic inactivation.
E. A decreased effect of the Clopidogrel due to metabolic inactivation.
Rationale: Omeprazole inhibits CYP2C19, which is needed to activate clopidogrel
prodrug. Results in decreased antiplatelet effect and increased cardiovascular risk.
Question 4: A 29 year old male with a history of upper abdominal pain and
tarry stools is determined to have peptic ulcer disease. Pharmacological
therapy includes an anticholinergic drug. Upon taking his medication, which
of the following assessment findings would be most likely in this client?
A. Dilated pupils
B. Hyperactive bowel sounds
C. Bradycardia
D. Drooling
E. Tenesmus
Rationale: Anticholinergics block parasympathetic: cause mydriasis, dry mouth,
decreased bowel sounds, tachycardia, urinary retention.
Question 5: Women who are prescribed a drug in category X must be
counseled to, at a minimum:
A. Only take the medications on days during which no intercourse takes place.
2026/2027 QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED
ANSWERS 100% PASS
OVERVIEW:
NU 578 PHARMACOLOGY EXAM 1 covers foundational principles and autonomic
pharmacology. Topics include adrenergic and cholinergic agonists/antagonists,
beta-blockers with ISA, alpha-blockers, clonidine, methyldopa, dobutamine,
dopamine, pharmacokinetics - half-life, absorption, protein binding, P-
glycoprotein, CYP450 interactions, sustained-release, renal assessment in elderly,
adherence, teratogenicity, pregnancy categories, safe prescribing, and antidotes
like physostigmine. Emphasis on receptor selectivity, adverse effects, and clinical
application for advanced practice nurses preparing for safe medication
management.
Correct answer highlighted in bold Green + rationales.
Question 1: A patient is receiving methyldopa (Aldomet) for high blood
pressure. When will the Coomb's test be monitored?
A. At the beginning of treatment
C. At the end of treatment
B. Prior to treatment
D. At 6 months
E. B & D
Rationale: Methyldopa causes positive direct Coombs in 10-20 percent after 6-12
months, leading to hemolytic anemia. Baseline must be prior to treatment and
rechecked at 6 and 12 months.
Question 2: To assess the renal function of 72-year-old, the APN knows to
check which lab value?
A. Urinalysis
, B. Creatinine clearance
C. BUN
D. Creatinine
Rationale: In elderly, serum creatinine alone overestimates GFR due to low muscle
mass. Creatinine clearance or eGFR is best indicator of renal function.
Question 3: A patient is taking Clopidogrel, a drug to prevent platelet
aggregation. He develops heartburn and begins to take Omeprazole, a proton
pump inhibitor. The NP knows that the interaction of the two drugs may result
in:
A. A complexation of the two drugs in the gut. The patient should take them 2 hours apart.
B. An elevation of Omeprazole in the blood. Enhanced effects may be seen.
C. An elevation of Clopidogrel in the blood. Enhanced effects may be seen.
D. A decreased effect of the Omeprazole due to metabolic inactivation.
E. A decreased effect of the Clopidogrel due to metabolic inactivation.
Rationale: Omeprazole inhibits CYP2C19, which is needed to activate clopidogrel
prodrug. Results in decreased antiplatelet effect and increased cardiovascular risk.
Question 4: A 29 year old male with a history of upper abdominal pain and
tarry stools is determined to have peptic ulcer disease. Pharmacological
therapy includes an anticholinergic drug. Upon taking his medication, which
of the following assessment findings would be most likely in this client?
A. Dilated pupils
B. Hyperactive bowel sounds
C. Bradycardia
D. Drooling
E. Tenesmus
Rationale: Anticholinergics block parasympathetic: cause mydriasis, dry mouth,
decreased bowel sounds, tachycardia, urinary retention.
Question 5: Women who are prescribed a drug in category X must be
counseled to, at a minimum:
A. Only take the medications on days during which no intercourse takes place.
