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NSG 252 EXAM 3 HEALTH PROMOTION AND CLINICAL PRACTICE | COMPLETE EXAM 2026/2027 | UPDATED EXAM QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED SOLUTIONS

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NSG 252 EXAM 3 HEALTH PROMOTION AND CLINICAL PRACTICE | COMPLETE EXAM 2026/2027 | UPDATED EXAM QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED SOLUTIONS

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NSG 252 – Exam 3: Health Promotion & Clinical




NSG 252 EXAM 3 HEALTH PROMOTION AND CLINICAL PRACTICE | COMPLETE EXAM
2026/2027 | UPDATED EXAM QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED SOLUTIONS




NSG 252 – Exam 3
Health Promotion & Clinical Practice




1. Pender's Health Promotion Model focuses primarily on which factor
influencing health behavior?
A. Insurance coverage status
B. Individual perceptions and cognitive-perceptual factors
C. Provider prescriptive authority
D. Genetic predisposition alone
B. Individual perceptions and cognitive-perceptual factors —
Pender's model emphasizes perceived benefits, barriers, and self-
efficacy in shaping health-promoting behavior.
2. According to the Health Belief Model, a patient who believes a
disease is unlikely to affect them demonstrates low:
A. Cues to action
B. Perceived barriers
C. Perceived susceptibility
D. Perceived severity
C. Perceived susceptibility — Perceived susceptibility is the belief
about personal risk of developing a condition.
3. Which concept in the Health Belief Model refers to a trigger that
prompts action, such as a friend's diagnosis?


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, NSG 252 – Exam 3: Health Promotion & Clinical



A. Modifying factor
B. Self-efficacy
C. Perceived benefit
D. Cue to action
D. Cue to action — Cues to action are internal or external stimuli
that prompt readiness to change behavior.
4. Bandura's concept of self-efficacy is best defined as:
A. Access to healthcare resources
B. Confidence in one's ability to perform a specific behavior
C. Belief that illness is inevitable
D. Knowledge of disease pathophysiology
B. Confidence in one's ability to perform a specific behavior — Self-
efficacy is the belief in one's own capability to execute a behavior
successfully.
5. In the Transtheoretical (Stages of Change) Model, a client who has
changed behavior for less than six months is in which stage?
A. Maintenance
B. Contemplation
C. Precontemplation
D. Action
D. Action — The action stage covers overt behavior change
sustained for less than six months.
6. A client who is aware of a problem but has no intention to change
within six months is in which stage?
A. Preparation
B. Termination
C. Contemplation
D. Action
C. Contemplation — Contemplation involves awareness of the
problem without commitment to near-term change.
7. Which is a core assumption of Pender's Health Promotion Model?
A. Illness is solely determined by genetics
B. Motivation is irrelevant to outcomes


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, NSG 252 – Exam 3: Health Promotion & Clinical



C. Health behavior is unrelated to prior experience
D. People seek to create conditions that allow them to express their
health potential
D. People seek to create conditions that allow them to express their
health potential — Pender's model views health promotion as an
expression of actualizing human potential.
8. The Ottawa Charter for Health Promotion identifies which as a key
action area?
A. Centralizing all care in acute settings
B. Building healthy public policy
C. Increasing hospital bed capacity
D. Restricting patient access to information
B. Building healthy public policy — The Ottawa Charter names
healthy public policy as a foundational action area for health
promotion.
9. Primary prevention aims to:
A. Detect disease early
B. Limit disability from existing disease
C. Prevent disease before it occurs
D. Restore function after illness
C. Prevent disease before it occurs — Primary prevention targets
disease occurrence before pathological changes begin.
10. Administering the influenza vaccine is an example of which level of
prevention?
A. Primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Tertiary prevention
D. Quaternary prevention
A. Primary prevention — Immunization prevents disease onset,
making it a primary prevention measure.
11. Mammography screening in an asymptomatic woman is an example
of:
A. Secondary prevention
B. Tertiary prevention

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, NSG 252 – Exam 3: Health Promotion & Clinical



C. Health restoration
D. Primary prevention
A. Secondary prevention — Screening for early detection in
asymptomatic individuals is secondary prevention.
12. Cardiac rehabilitation after myocardial infarction represents which
level of prevention?
A. Tertiary prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Primary prevention
D. Health protection
A. Tertiary prevention — Tertiary prevention reduces complications
and restores function after disease has occurred.
13. The Health-Illness Continuum concept illustrates that health is:
A. A dynamic, fluctuating state rather than fixed
B. Determined exclusively by genetics
C. Unrelated to behavior
D. Only the absence of disease
A. A dynamic, fluctuating state rather than fixed — The continuum
reflects health as a constantly changing state influenced by many
factors.
14. Which best describes "locus of control" as it relates to health
behavior?
A. A measure of blood pressure control
B. The degree to which people believe they control events affecting them
C. A screening tool for depression
D. A vaccination schedule
B. The degree to which people believe they control events affecting
them — Locus of control describes whether individuals attribute
outcomes to their own actions or outside forces.
15. A client with an internal locus of control is most likely to:
A. Take personal responsibility for health behaviors
B. Attribute illness to fate
C. Avoid setting health goals



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