Respiratory Therapy TMC Practice Exam 2026-180+
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+.
100% Verified Solutions | Updated Per Latest NBRC
Guidelines | Graded A+
SECTION 1: PATIENT ASSESSMENT & DATA COLLECTION
Question 1:
Upon admission for any procedure, it is important to ensure that an informed
consent has been signed and the patient verifies they understand what is going to
happen to them. What is also important to verify at this time?
A) The patient's favorite food
B) The patient's DNR status/Advance Directives
C) The patient's preferred room temperature
D) The patient's sleep schedule
Answer: B
Rationale: DNR status/Advance Directives are also important to verify as they will
determine what actions will be taken if something were to happen to the patient
during the procedure.
Question 2:
A patient involved in an automobile accident is brought to the ED with tachypnea,
tracheal deviation to the right, splinting, asymmetrical chest movement, and
decreased breath sounds on the left side. The respiratory therapist should initially:
A) Insert a chest tube
B) Administer 100% oxygen via mask
C) Perform endotracheal intubation
D) Initiate NIPPV
,Answer: B
Rationale: The patient's presentation indicates a tension pneumothorax on the left
side. Administering 100% oxygen is the initial intervention to support oxygenation
while preparing for chest tube insertion.
Question 3:
A patient is admitted to the Emergency Department via ambulance. The cardiac
monitor indicates sinus tachycardia. The patient is orally intubated with a size 7.5
mm ID ETT and is being manually ventilated. What other point of care monitoring
should the RT recommend for this patient?
A) ABG analysis
B) Transcutaneous monitoring
C) Pulse oximetry
D) Serum electrolyte analysis
Answer: C
Rationale: Pulse oximetry provides immediate, non-invasive assessment of
oxygenation status in the intubated patient. This gives valuable data quickly,
unlike ABG analysis which takes time to process.
Question 4:
Which of the following is the single most important safety practice in a permanent
makeup practice? (This question relates to infection control principles that apply
to all healthcare settings.)
A) Client satisfaction
B) Infection prevention and safety
C) Speed of service
D) Profitability
,Answer: B
Rationale: Infection prevention and safety protect both the client and practitioner
and is the fundamental requirement in all healthcare-related procedures.
Question 5:
A patient is in full cardiopulmonary arrest and after several attempts, the patient
is orally intubated with a size 7 mm ID endotracheal tube. The nurse is unable to
establish IV access and the ECG monitor shows sinus bradycardia. What is the
most appropriate route to administer atropine to this patient?
A) Aerosolized via small volume nebulizer
B) Injected via intraosseous route
C) Instill into endotracheal tube
D) Instill into nasogastric tube
Answer: B
Rationale: Intraosseous (IO) access is an alternative route for medication
administration when IV access cannot be established. Atropine can be given via IO
route for bradycardia.
Question 6:
Which of the following would be the most appropriate test to evaluate partial
vocal cord paralysis in a patient complaining of difficulty swallowing?
A) SB nitrogen elimination
B) Maximum voluntary ventilation
C) Flow volume loop
D) Diffusing capacity
Answer: C
Rationale: A flow volume loop can detect upper airway obstruction and vocal cord
dysfunction patterns, making it useful for evaluating vocal cord paralysis.
, Question 7:
A normal 5-foot 4-inch tall staff member serves as a biologic control for the PFT
lab. Her established FVC is 3.81 L with a SD of ±0.13 L. During quality control
testing of a spirometer, she produces the following FVC results: FVC #1 = 3.73 L,
FVC #2 = 3.88 L, FVC #3 = 3.71 L. You should conclude that:
A) The spirometer needs calibration
B) The spirometer is performing within acceptable limits
C) The staff member is having a bad day
D) The results should be discarded
Answer: B
Rationale: The results are within the established limits (3.81 ± 0.13 L), indicating
the spirometer is performing within acceptable limits.
Question 8:
Twenty-four hours after a patient was intubated, she develops a fever of 99.9°F, a
right lower lobe infiltrate, and her white blood cell count is 12,000 per mm3. The
respiratory therapist should recommend:
A) Antiviral therapy
B) Blood transfusion
C) SABA by small volume nebulizer
D) Antibiotic therapy
Answer: D
Rationale: The combination of fever, infiltrate, and elevated WBC count indicates a
bacterial infection, likely ventilator-associated pneumonia. Antibiotic therapy is
appropriate.
Question 9:
What is the most important step before performing any procedure?
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+.
100% Verified Solutions | Updated Per Latest NBRC
Guidelines | Graded A+
SECTION 1: PATIENT ASSESSMENT & DATA COLLECTION
Question 1:
Upon admission for any procedure, it is important to ensure that an informed
consent has been signed and the patient verifies they understand what is going to
happen to them. What is also important to verify at this time?
A) The patient's favorite food
B) The patient's DNR status/Advance Directives
C) The patient's preferred room temperature
D) The patient's sleep schedule
Answer: B
Rationale: DNR status/Advance Directives are also important to verify as they will
determine what actions will be taken if something were to happen to the patient
during the procedure.
Question 2:
A patient involved in an automobile accident is brought to the ED with tachypnea,
tracheal deviation to the right, splinting, asymmetrical chest movement, and
decreased breath sounds on the left side. The respiratory therapist should initially:
A) Insert a chest tube
B) Administer 100% oxygen via mask
C) Perform endotracheal intubation
D) Initiate NIPPV
,Answer: B
Rationale: The patient's presentation indicates a tension pneumothorax on the left
side. Administering 100% oxygen is the initial intervention to support oxygenation
while preparing for chest tube insertion.
Question 3:
A patient is admitted to the Emergency Department via ambulance. The cardiac
monitor indicates sinus tachycardia. The patient is orally intubated with a size 7.5
mm ID ETT and is being manually ventilated. What other point of care monitoring
should the RT recommend for this patient?
A) ABG analysis
B) Transcutaneous monitoring
C) Pulse oximetry
D) Serum electrolyte analysis
Answer: C
Rationale: Pulse oximetry provides immediate, non-invasive assessment of
oxygenation status in the intubated patient. This gives valuable data quickly,
unlike ABG analysis which takes time to process.
Question 4:
Which of the following is the single most important safety practice in a permanent
makeup practice? (This question relates to infection control principles that apply
to all healthcare settings.)
A) Client satisfaction
B) Infection prevention and safety
C) Speed of service
D) Profitability
,Answer: B
Rationale: Infection prevention and safety protect both the client and practitioner
and is the fundamental requirement in all healthcare-related procedures.
Question 5:
A patient is in full cardiopulmonary arrest and after several attempts, the patient
is orally intubated with a size 7 mm ID endotracheal tube. The nurse is unable to
establish IV access and the ECG monitor shows sinus bradycardia. What is the
most appropriate route to administer atropine to this patient?
A) Aerosolized via small volume nebulizer
B) Injected via intraosseous route
C) Instill into endotracheal tube
D) Instill into nasogastric tube
Answer: B
Rationale: Intraosseous (IO) access is an alternative route for medication
administration when IV access cannot be established. Atropine can be given via IO
route for bradycardia.
Question 6:
Which of the following would be the most appropriate test to evaluate partial
vocal cord paralysis in a patient complaining of difficulty swallowing?
A) SB nitrogen elimination
B) Maximum voluntary ventilation
C) Flow volume loop
D) Diffusing capacity
Answer: C
Rationale: A flow volume loop can detect upper airway obstruction and vocal cord
dysfunction patterns, making it useful for evaluating vocal cord paralysis.
, Question 7:
A normal 5-foot 4-inch tall staff member serves as a biologic control for the PFT
lab. Her established FVC is 3.81 L with a SD of ±0.13 L. During quality control
testing of a spirometer, she produces the following FVC results: FVC #1 = 3.73 L,
FVC #2 = 3.88 L, FVC #3 = 3.71 L. You should conclude that:
A) The spirometer needs calibration
B) The spirometer is performing within acceptable limits
C) The staff member is having a bad day
D) The results should be discarded
Answer: B
Rationale: The results are within the established limits (3.81 ± 0.13 L), indicating
the spirometer is performing within acceptable limits.
Question 8:
Twenty-four hours after a patient was intubated, she develops a fever of 99.9°F, a
right lower lobe infiltrate, and her white blood cell count is 12,000 per mm3. The
respiratory therapist should recommend:
A) Antiviral therapy
B) Blood transfusion
C) SABA by small volume nebulizer
D) Antibiotic therapy
Answer: D
Rationale: The combination of fever, infiltrate, and elevated WBC count indicates a
bacterial infection, likely ventilator-associated pneumonia. Antibiotic therapy is
appropriate.
Question 9:
What is the most important step before performing any procedure?
