NSG6020 / NSG 6020 Final Exam 2026 Questions and Answers Updated (2026 / 2027) (Verified Answers)

NSG6020 / NSG 6020 Final Exam 2026 Questions and Answers Updated (2026 / 2027) (Verified Answers) Question 1. The brain and spinal cord are included in which of the following? A. Peripheral nervous system B. Central nervous system C. Autonomic nervous system D. Somatic nervous system Correct Answer: B Rationale: The central nervous system (CNS) consists of the brain and spinal cord. The peripheral nervous system includes all nerves outside the CNS. Question 2. The cranial nerves, 31 pairs of spinal nerves, and branches make up which of the following? A. Central nervous system B. Autonomic nervous system C. Peripheral nervous system D. Enteric nervous system Correct Answer: C Rationale: The peripheral nervous system (PNS) includes all neural tissue outside the CNS, including cranial nerves, spinal nerves, and their branches. Question 3. A rotational sensation of spinning is considered to be which of the following? A. Ataxia B. Paresthesia C. Vertigo D. Dizziness Correct Answer: C Rationale: Vertigo is specifically defined as a rotational or spinning sensation. It is distinct from generalized dizziness or lightheadedness. Question 4. A sensation of numbness and/or tingling of the extremities is referred to as which of the following? A. Ataxia B. Vertigo C. Paresthesia D. Dysesthesia Correct Answer: C Rationale: Paresthesia refers to abnormal sensations such as numbness, tingling, or “pins and needles” in the extremities. Question 5. Lightly touching the cornea with a cotton ball would be examining which type of reflex? A. Deep tendon reflex B. Superficial reflex C. Pathologic reflex D. Visceral reflex Correct Answer: B Rationale: The corneal reflex is a superficial reflex. It involves sensory stimulation of the cornea and motor response of eyelid closure. Question 6. Which of the following is Cranial Nerve XI? A. Vagus nerve B. Hypoglossal nerve C. Spinal accessory nerve D. Glossopharyngeal nerve Correct Answer: C Rationale: Cranial Nerve XI is the spinal accessory nerve. It innervates the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles. Question 7. Which of the following is NOT considered a primary headache? A. Tension headache B. Migraine headache C. Cluster headache D. Meningitis Correct Answer: D Rationale: Meningitis is a secondary headache caused by an underlying organic condition (inflammation of the meninges). Primary headaches are not caused by another medical condition. Question 8. Which of the following may be noted in a patient with a migraine headache? A. Neck stiffness B. Fever C. Aura D. Focal neurological deficits Correct Answer: C Rationale: Aura is a classic feature of migraine headaches, often presenting as visual disturbances, sensory changes, or speech difficulties preceding the headache. Question 9. An unsteady gait or difficulty balancing is referred to as which of the following? A. Vertigo B. Ataxia C. Paresthesia D. Apraxia Correct Answer: B Rationale: Ataxia is the term for unsteady gait and impaired coordination. It results from dysfunction of the cerebellum or its pathways. Question 10. Which of the following is NOT considered a short-term stroke risk? A. Atrial fibrillation B. Hypertension C. Age 50 years D. Previous TIA Correct Answer: C Rationale: Age 50 years is a non-modifiable risk factor for stroke overall but is not considered a short-term risk factor. Short-term risks include conditions like atrial fibrillation, hypertension, and recent TIA. Question 11. Pinpoint pupils may be a result of which of the following? A. Cocaine use B. Heroin use C. Amphetamine use D. Atropine use Correct Answer: B Rationale: Heroin and other opioids cause miosis (pinpoint pupils) due to parasympathetic stimulation. Sympathomimetics like cocaine cause mydriasis. Question 12. Which of the following is contraindicated when assessing the comatose patient? A. Assessing pupillary response B. Assessing corneal reflex C. Dilating the patient’s pupils to assess optic nerve D. Assessing motor response Correct Answer: C Rationale: Dilating the pupils in a comatose patient is contraindicated because it prevents the assessment of pupillary response, a critical indicator of neurological status. Question 13. Which of the following is NOT associated with a diagnosis of possible meningitis? A. Nuchal rigidity B. Positive Kernig’s sign C. Positive Brudzinski’s sign D. Neck supple with full ROM Correct Answer: D Rationale: A supple neck with full range of motion is not associated with meningitis. Nuchal rigidity (stiff neck) is a classic sign of meningeal irritation. Question 14. Which of the following refers to the patient’s ability to identify an object by feeling it with eyes closed? A. Graphesthesia B. Stereognosis C. Two-point discrimination D. Proprioception Correct Answer: B Rationale: Stereognosis is the ability to identify an object through tactile sensation alone. Graphesthesia is the ability to identify numbers or letters traced on the skin. Question 15. Risk factors for stroke include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Hypertension B. Atrial fibrillation C. Hypotension D. Diabetes mellitus Correct Answer: C Rationale: Hypotension is not a risk factor for stroke. Hypertension, atrial fibrillation, and diabetes mellitus are all established risk factors for stroke. Question 16. Which category should the following information be placed in a SOAP note: “Abdominal pain 3 days, intermittent with a pain score of 7/10 accompanied by nausea and vomiting”? A. Subjective B. Objective C. Assessment D. Plan Correct Answer: A Rationale: This information is the patient’s description of their symptoms and belongs in the Subjective section of the SOAP note, specifically in the History of Present Illness. Question 17. Where are the differential diagnoses located in a SOAP note? A. Subjective B. Objective C. Assessment D. Plan Correct Answer: C Rationale: Differential diagnoses are listed in the Assessment section of the SOAP note, where the clinician synthesizes findings and considers possible diagnoses. Question 18. Which of the following statements regarding differential diagnoses is TRUE? A. A single diagnosis that is considered the most likely B. A list of all possible diagnoses without prioritization C. A group of 3 evidence-based diagnoses that do not include the primary diagnosis as one of the differential diagnoses in which a clinician must be aware of if the client does not improve D. Diagnoses that are confirmed by laboratory testing Correct Answer: C Rationale: Differential diagnoses are alternative diagnoses that must be considered and ruled out. They represent conditions that could explain the patient’s presentation and should be monitored if the patient does not improve. PART 2 — NEW QUESTIONS (Questions 19–200) Section A: Neurological Anatomy and Physiology (Questions 19–40) Question 19. The autonomic nervous system is divided into which two main branches? A. Central and peripheral B. Somatic and visceral C. Sympathetic and parasympathetic D. Sensory and motor Correct Answer: C Rationale: The autonomic nervous system consists of the sympathetic (fight-or-flight) and parasympathetic (rest-and-digest) branches. Question 20. Which lobe of the brain is primarily responsible for processing visual information? A. Frontal lobe B. Temporal lobe C. Parietal lobe D. Occipital lobe Correct Answer: D Rationale: The occipital lobe contains the primary visual cortex and is responsible for processing visual information.