NUR 170 Med Surg Exam 2-V1 and V2 | Questions and
Answers | 2026 Update | 100% Correct - Galen College
of Nursing.
1. What condition is characterized by disruption of fluid in the eye, leading to
increased intraocular pressure?
A) Macular degeneration
B) Cataracts
C) Glaucoma
D) Retinal detachment
Correct Answer: C) Glaucoma
Rationale: Glaucoma is a group of eye conditions that damage the optic nerve,
often caused by an abnormally high pressure in your eye. This increased
intraocular pressure (IOP) is due to impaired drainage of the aqueous humor, not
a problem with the lens or retina.
2. A patient with glaucoma asks the nurse what causes the condition. Which
response is correct?
A) "Your eye is producing too much fluid."
B) "The fluid in your eye is not draining properly, which is causing pressure."
C) "The center of your vision is losing clarity due to macular damage."
D) "Your retina is detaching from the underlying tissue."
Correct Answer: B) "The fluid in your eye is not draining properly, which is
causing pressure."
Rationale: The primary pathophysiology of most glaucoma is a blockage in the
outflow of aqueous humor, leading to increased IOP. This is not related to excess
fluid production alone or other eye structures.
3. Which type of vision is typically lost first in patients with glaucoma?
A) Central vision
B) Peripheral vision
,C) Near vision
D) Color vision
Correct Answer: B) Peripheral vision
Rationale: Open-angle glaucoma causes a gradual, painless loss of peripheral
vision first, often described as "tunnel vision" as the condition progresses. Central
vision, which is used for reading and fine detail, is usually preserved until the late
stages.
4. Which type of glaucoma is considered an emergency?
A) Primary open-angle glaucoma
B) Normal-tension glaucoma
C) Closed-angle glaucoma
D) Congenital glaucoma
Correct Answer: C) Closed-angle glaucoma
Rationale: Acute closed-angle (or angle-closure) glaucoma is an ophthalmologic
emergency. It is characterized by a sudden increase in IOP, leading to severe eye
pain, headache, nausea, vomiting, blurred vision, and halos around lights.
5. What condition occurs when the lens of the eye loses transparency?
A) Glaucoma
B) Cataracts
C) Macular degeneration
D) Diabetic retinopathy
Correct Answer: B) Cataracts
Rationale: A cataract is the opacification of the normally clear crystalline lens of
the eye. This leads to a progressive, painless loss of vision, affecting contrast
sensitivity, color perception, and causing glare.
6. What teaching should the nurse provide to a patient after cataract surgery?
A) Resume all normal activities immediately.
B) Do not lift anything heavy or do anything that may increase IOP, wear eyepatch
to avoid rubbing eye, and wear dark glasses until pupils react to light.
,C) Avoid all eye drops.
D) Sleep on the operative side.
Correct Answer: B)
Rationale: Post-cataract precautions include avoiding activities that increase IOP
(bending, lifting, straining, coughing), using the eye shield (especially at night) to
prevent rubbing, and wearing sunglasses to manage photophobia. The patient
should sleep on the non-operative side.
7. A patient with cataracts asks what symptoms to expect. Which symptoms
should the nurse include?
A) Sudden peripheral vision loss
B) Double vision, halos visible, and white cloudy pupils
C) Severe eye pain and photophobia
D) Flashing lights and floaters
Correct Answer: B) Double vision, halos visible, and white cloudy pupils
Rationale: Cataract symptoms include blurred vision, diplopia (double vision) in
one eye, halos around lights, decreased contrast sensitivity, and a visible white or
cloudy appearance of the pupil (leukocoria).
8. The nurse is performing a neurological assessment on a client and is assessing
the function of cranial nerves III, IV, and VI. Assessment of which aspect of
function will yield the best information about these cranial nerves?
A) Eye movements
B) Facial expressions
C) Shoulder shrug
D) Tongue movement
Correct Answer: A) Eye movements
Rationale: Cranial nerves III (Oculomotor), IV (Trochlear), and VI (Abducens)
control extraocular eye movements. Assessing the six cardinal positions of gaze is
the best way to evaluate their function.
9. Which action would the nurse take to test cranial nerve XI, the spinal
accessory nerve?
, A) Ask the client to stick out the tongue.
B) Ask the client to follow a flashlight with the eyes.
C) Ask the client to shrug the shoulders against the nurse's resistance.
D) Ask the client to identify a scent.
Correct Answer: C) Ask the client to shrug the shoulders against the nurse's
resistance.
Rationale: Cranial nerve XI (Spinal Accessory) innervates the sternocleidomastoid
and trapezius muscles, which control shoulder shrugging and head turning.
Resistance against these movements tests its function.
10. A nurse assesses a client who has a history of migraines. Which clinical
manifestation would the nurse identify as an aura?
A) Vertigo
B) Visual disturbances
C) Lethargy
D) Numbness of the tongue
Correct Answer: B) Visual disturbances
Rationale: An aura is a sensory warning sign that can precede a migraine or
seizure. Visual disturbances (e.g., flashing lights, zigzag lines, blind spots) are the
most common type of aura.
11. Which of the following patients would the nurse identify as being highest
risk for stroke?
A) A 27-year-old heavy cocaine user
B) A 30-year-old who drinks a beer a day
C) A 40-year-old who uses seasonal antihistamines
D) A 65-year-old who is active and on no medications
Correct Answer: A) A 27-year-old heavy cocaine user
Rationale: While age is a non-modifiable risk factor, cocaine use is a significant
modifiable risk factor for stroke, even in young adults. It can cause vasospasm and
severe hypertension.
Answers | 2026 Update | 100% Correct - Galen College
of Nursing.
1. What condition is characterized by disruption of fluid in the eye, leading to
increased intraocular pressure?
A) Macular degeneration
B) Cataracts
C) Glaucoma
D) Retinal detachment
Correct Answer: C) Glaucoma
Rationale: Glaucoma is a group of eye conditions that damage the optic nerve,
often caused by an abnormally high pressure in your eye. This increased
intraocular pressure (IOP) is due to impaired drainage of the aqueous humor, not
a problem with the lens or retina.
2. A patient with glaucoma asks the nurse what causes the condition. Which
response is correct?
A) "Your eye is producing too much fluid."
B) "The fluid in your eye is not draining properly, which is causing pressure."
C) "The center of your vision is losing clarity due to macular damage."
D) "Your retina is detaching from the underlying tissue."
Correct Answer: B) "The fluid in your eye is not draining properly, which is
causing pressure."
Rationale: The primary pathophysiology of most glaucoma is a blockage in the
outflow of aqueous humor, leading to increased IOP. This is not related to excess
fluid production alone or other eye structures.
3. Which type of vision is typically lost first in patients with glaucoma?
A) Central vision
B) Peripheral vision
,C) Near vision
D) Color vision
Correct Answer: B) Peripheral vision
Rationale: Open-angle glaucoma causes a gradual, painless loss of peripheral
vision first, often described as "tunnel vision" as the condition progresses. Central
vision, which is used for reading and fine detail, is usually preserved until the late
stages.
4. Which type of glaucoma is considered an emergency?
A) Primary open-angle glaucoma
B) Normal-tension glaucoma
C) Closed-angle glaucoma
D) Congenital glaucoma
Correct Answer: C) Closed-angle glaucoma
Rationale: Acute closed-angle (or angle-closure) glaucoma is an ophthalmologic
emergency. It is characterized by a sudden increase in IOP, leading to severe eye
pain, headache, nausea, vomiting, blurred vision, and halos around lights.
5. What condition occurs when the lens of the eye loses transparency?
A) Glaucoma
B) Cataracts
C) Macular degeneration
D) Diabetic retinopathy
Correct Answer: B) Cataracts
Rationale: A cataract is the opacification of the normally clear crystalline lens of
the eye. This leads to a progressive, painless loss of vision, affecting contrast
sensitivity, color perception, and causing glare.
6. What teaching should the nurse provide to a patient after cataract surgery?
A) Resume all normal activities immediately.
B) Do not lift anything heavy or do anything that may increase IOP, wear eyepatch
to avoid rubbing eye, and wear dark glasses until pupils react to light.
,C) Avoid all eye drops.
D) Sleep on the operative side.
Correct Answer: B)
Rationale: Post-cataract precautions include avoiding activities that increase IOP
(bending, lifting, straining, coughing), using the eye shield (especially at night) to
prevent rubbing, and wearing sunglasses to manage photophobia. The patient
should sleep on the non-operative side.
7. A patient with cataracts asks what symptoms to expect. Which symptoms
should the nurse include?
A) Sudden peripheral vision loss
B) Double vision, halos visible, and white cloudy pupils
C) Severe eye pain and photophobia
D) Flashing lights and floaters
Correct Answer: B) Double vision, halos visible, and white cloudy pupils
Rationale: Cataract symptoms include blurred vision, diplopia (double vision) in
one eye, halos around lights, decreased contrast sensitivity, and a visible white or
cloudy appearance of the pupil (leukocoria).
8. The nurse is performing a neurological assessment on a client and is assessing
the function of cranial nerves III, IV, and VI. Assessment of which aspect of
function will yield the best information about these cranial nerves?
A) Eye movements
B) Facial expressions
C) Shoulder shrug
D) Tongue movement
Correct Answer: A) Eye movements
Rationale: Cranial nerves III (Oculomotor), IV (Trochlear), and VI (Abducens)
control extraocular eye movements. Assessing the six cardinal positions of gaze is
the best way to evaluate their function.
9. Which action would the nurse take to test cranial nerve XI, the spinal
accessory nerve?
, A) Ask the client to stick out the tongue.
B) Ask the client to follow a flashlight with the eyes.
C) Ask the client to shrug the shoulders against the nurse's resistance.
D) Ask the client to identify a scent.
Correct Answer: C) Ask the client to shrug the shoulders against the nurse's
resistance.
Rationale: Cranial nerve XI (Spinal Accessory) innervates the sternocleidomastoid
and trapezius muscles, which control shoulder shrugging and head turning.
Resistance against these movements tests its function.
10. A nurse assesses a client who has a history of migraines. Which clinical
manifestation would the nurse identify as an aura?
A) Vertigo
B) Visual disturbances
C) Lethargy
D) Numbness of the tongue
Correct Answer: B) Visual disturbances
Rationale: An aura is a sensory warning sign that can precede a migraine or
seizure. Visual disturbances (e.g., flashing lights, zigzag lines, blind spots) are the
most common type of aura.
11. Which of the following patients would the nurse identify as being highest
risk for stroke?
A) A 27-year-old heavy cocaine user
B) A 30-year-old who drinks a beer a day
C) A 40-year-old who uses seasonal antihistamines
D) A 65-year-old who is active and on no medications
Correct Answer: A) A 27-year-old heavy cocaine user
Rationale: While age is a non-modifiable risk factor, cocaine use is a significant
modifiable risk factor for stroke, even in young adults. It can cause vasospasm and
severe hypertension.
