PN HESI Exit Exam V1 – Complete Practice
Test Bank (Questions 1-160)2026
1. A Korean female exchange student avoids eye contact when asked
about sexual activity. What should the PN do?
A. Omit the question
B. Use an interpreter
C. Reword the question
D. Ask the question again more loudly
Correct Answer: C. Reword the question.
Rationale: Open-ended questions build trust and encourage honest
communication. The PN should rephrase the question to be more culturally
sensitive and direct, understanding that avoidance of eye contact may be a
cultural norm rather than a sign of deception .
2. A confused long-term care resident has no ID band. What should the
PN do before giving medication?
A. Ask staff to confirm identity
B. Wait for family
C. Reorient the resident
D. Verify room and bed number
Correct Answer: D. Verify room and bed number.
Rationale: Facility-approved identifiers must be used to confirm identity.
Room and bed number provide objective verification when the ID band is
,missing. Relying on staff memory increases error risk. Medication safety
requires multiple identifiers .
3. A burn client with 40% TBSA has urine output of 20 mL/hr. What
action is required?
A. Encourage oral intake
B. Monitor closely
C. Administer pain meds
D. Report immediately
Correct Answer: D. Report immediately.
Rationale: Urine output below 30 mL/hr indicates inadequate perfusion. Burn
patients are at high risk for hypovolemic shock. Immediate intervention may
prevent renal failure. This is a critical finding .
4. A child receiving a blood transfusion reports itching and flushing
after 15 minutes. What is the PN's first action?
A. Apply lotion
B. Stop transfusion
C. Check IV site
D. Obtain vital signs
Correct Answer: B. Stop transfusion.
Rationale: Itching and flushing are early signs of a transfusion reaction.
Stopping the transfusion prevents progression. Further assessment follows
cessation. Continuing the infusion can be life-threatening .
,5. The PN is caring for a client with COPD. Which finding requires
immediate intervention?
A. Barrel-shaped chest
B. Oxygen saturation of 88%
C. Use of accessory muscles
D. Productive cough with sputum
Correct Answer: C. Use of accessory muscles.
Rationale: Use of accessory muscles indicates increased work of breathing
and respiratory distress. This suggests the client may be decompensating and
requires prompt intervention. Barrel chest and productive cough are common
in COPD. Oxygen saturation of 88% may be acceptable for some COPD
clients .
6. A client receiving IV potassium chloride complains of burning at the
IV site. What should the PN do first?
A. Slow the infusion rate
B. Stop the infusion
C. Check IV patency
D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct Answer: C. Check IV patency.
Rationale: Potassium is irritating to veins and must be infused through a
patent IV. Checking patency ensures the IV has not infiltrated. Infiltration can
cause tissue damage. Correcting the cause may relieve symptoms without
discontinuing therapy .
, 7. Which task can the PN safely delegate to an unlicensed assistive
personnel (UAP)?
A. Teaching incentive spirometry
B. Assessing pain level
C. Recording intake and output
D. Evaluating breath sounds
Correct Answer: C. Recording intake and output.
Rationale: UAPs may collect routine, noninvasive data such as intake and
output. Teaching, assessment, and evaluation require nursing judgment and
cannot be delegated. Accurate I&O collection supports fluid balance
monitoring. Delegation must follow scope of practice .
8. A postoperative client reports sudden shortness of breath and chest
pain. What is the PN's priority action?
A. Elevate the head of the bed
B. Administer pain medication
C. Notify the RN
D. Apply oxygen
Correct Answer: A. Elevate the head of the bed.
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed improves oxygenation and helps the
client breathe more easily. Sudden shortness of breath and chest pain may
indicate pulmonary embolism. This is the immediate priority intervention
before notifying the RN .
9. A client with heart failure gains 4 pounds in 2 days. What should the
PN do?
Test Bank (Questions 1-160)2026
1. A Korean female exchange student avoids eye contact when asked
about sexual activity. What should the PN do?
A. Omit the question
B. Use an interpreter
C. Reword the question
D. Ask the question again more loudly
Correct Answer: C. Reword the question.
Rationale: Open-ended questions build trust and encourage honest
communication. The PN should rephrase the question to be more culturally
sensitive and direct, understanding that avoidance of eye contact may be a
cultural norm rather than a sign of deception .
2. A confused long-term care resident has no ID band. What should the
PN do before giving medication?
A. Ask staff to confirm identity
B. Wait for family
C. Reorient the resident
D. Verify room and bed number
Correct Answer: D. Verify room and bed number.
Rationale: Facility-approved identifiers must be used to confirm identity.
Room and bed number provide objective verification when the ID band is
,missing. Relying on staff memory increases error risk. Medication safety
requires multiple identifiers .
3. A burn client with 40% TBSA has urine output of 20 mL/hr. What
action is required?
A. Encourage oral intake
B. Monitor closely
C. Administer pain meds
D. Report immediately
Correct Answer: D. Report immediately.
Rationale: Urine output below 30 mL/hr indicates inadequate perfusion. Burn
patients are at high risk for hypovolemic shock. Immediate intervention may
prevent renal failure. This is a critical finding .
4. A child receiving a blood transfusion reports itching and flushing
after 15 minutes. What is the PN's first action?
A. Apply lotion
B. Stop transfusion
C. Check IV site
D. Obtain vital signs
Correct Answer: B. Stop transfusion.
Rationale: Itching and flushing are early signs of a transfusion reaction.
Stopping the transfusion prevents progression. Further assessment follows
cessation. Continuing the infusion can be life-threatening .
,5. The PN is caring for a client with COPD. Which finding requires
immediate intervention?
A. Barrel-shaped chest
B. Oxygen saturation of 88%
C. Use of accessory muscles
D. Productive cough with sputum
Correct Answer: C. Use of accessory muscles.
Rationale: Use of accessory muscles indicates increased work of breathing
and respiratory distress. This suggests the client may be decompensating and
requires prompt intervention. Barrel chest and productive cough are common
in COPD. Oxygen saturation of 88% may be acceptable for some COPD
clients .
6. A client receiving IV potassium chloride complains of burning at the
IV site. What should the PN do first?
A. Slow the infusion rate
B. Stop the infusion
C. Check IV patency
D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct Answer: C. Check IV patency.
Rationale: Potassium is irritating to veins and must be infused through a
patent IV. Checking patency ensures the IV has not infiltrated. Infiltration can
cause tissue damage. Correcting the cause may relieve symptoms without
discontinuing therapy .
, 7. Which task can the PN safely delegate to an unlicensed assistive
personnel (UAP)?
A. Teaching incentive spirometry
B. Assessing pain level
C. Recording intake and output
D. Evaluating breath sounds
Correct Answer: C. Recording intake and output.
Rationale: UAPs may collect routine, noninvasive data such as intake and
output. Teaching, assessment, and evaluation require nursing judgment and
cannot be delegated. Accurate I&O collection supports fluid balance
monitoring. Delegation must follow scope of practice .
8. A postoperative client reports sudden shortness of breath and chest
pain. What is the PN's priority action?
A. Elevate the head of the bed
B. Administer pain medication
C. Notify the RN
D. Apply oxygen
Correct Answer: A. Elevate the head of the bed.
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed improves oxygenation and helps the
client breathe more easily. Sudden shortness of breath and chest pain may
indicate pulmonary embolism. This is the immediate priority intervention
before notifying the RN .
9. A client with heart failure gains 4 pounds in 2 days. What should the
PN do?
