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NCLEX-RN Success: Comprehensive Predictor Exam with 300 Questions & Rationales

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Ready to conquer the NCLEX-RN? This comprehensive practice exam features 300+ questions covering all major content areas—medical-surgical nursing, pharmacology, maternity, pediatrics, psychiatric nursing, and more! Each question includes correct answers with detailed rationales that teach you how to think like a nurse and select the best answer. Designed to simulate the ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor and NCLEX-RN exams, this resource helps you identify strengths and weaknesses while building test-taking confidence. Learn to prioritize patient care, recognize safety concerns, and apply nursing knowledge in clinical scenarios. Your ultimate preparation tool for nursing school exit exams and licensure success

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ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor Practice Exam
Preparation With Complete Questions And Correct Answers
With Rationales Already Graded A+ Brand New Version!!



Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes
mellitus. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse
that the client is experiencing hypoglycemia?
A. Fruity breath odor
B. Polyuria
C. Tachycardia
D. Polydipsia


Answer: C. Tachycardia
Explanation: Hypoglycemia triggers the sympathetic nervous system,
leading to manifestations such as tachycardia, diaphoresis, pallor, and
tremors. Fruity breath odor, polyuria, and polydipsia are classic signs of
hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis, not hypoglycemia. The nurse should
assess blood glucose immediately to confirm.


Question 2

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A nurse is planning care for a client who has a prescription for
continuous enteral feedings via a nasogastric tube. Which of the
following actions should the nurse include?
A. Flush the tube with 30 mL of air before each feeding
B. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings
C. Administer the feeding at room temperature over 30 minutes
D. Check residual volume every 12 hours


Answer: B. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings
Explanation: Elevating the head of the bed to at least 30 to 45 degrees
reduces the risk of aspiration, a major complication of enteral feedings.
Flushing with air is not standard; water is used. Feedings are typically
continuous, not bolused over 30 minutes, and residuals are checked
more frequently, typically every 4 to 6 hours.


Question 3
A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is receiving
furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse
monitor closely?
A. Serum sodium
B. Serum potassium
C. Serum calcium
D. Serum magnesium

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Answer: B. Serum potassium
Explanation: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes excretion of
potassium, potentially causing hypokalemia. Hypokalemia can lead to
cardiac dysrhythmias, especially in clients with heart failure who may
also be on digoxin. While sodium, calcium, and magnesium may be
affected, potassium is the most critical to monitor due to the risk of
arrhythmias.


Question 4
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new
prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements by the
client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A. I will take ibuprofen for minor pain
B. I will avoid eating leafy green vegetables
C. I will check my INR regularly as prescribed
D. I will take the medication with milk to prevent stomach upset


Answer: C. I will check my INR regularly as prescribed
Explanation: Warfarin requires routine monitoring of the International
Normalized Ratio (INR) to ensure therapeutic anticoagulation and
prevent bleeding or clotting complications. Ibuprofen increases bleeding
risk and should be avoided. Leafy green vegetables are high in vitamin
K, which antagonizes warfarin, but they need not be avoided entirely;
consistency is key. Milk does not affect warfarin absorption.

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Question 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a total hip
arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to
prevent venous thromboembolism?
A. Apply sequential compression devices bilaterally
B. Place a pillow under the client's knees
C. Encourage the client to cross legs while sitting
D. Massage the client's calves gently


Answer: A. Apply sequential compression devices bilaterally
Explanation: Sequential compression devices (SCDs) promote venous
return and reduce stasis, thereby decreasing the risk of deep vein
thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism. Placing a pillow under the
knees or crossing legs can impair venous return and increase DVT risk.
Massaging the calves can dislodge an existing thrombus and should be
avoided.


Question 6
A nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a client
who has a body mass index (BMI) of 32. Which of the following needle
lengths is most appropriate?
A. 5/8 inch
B. 1 inch
C. 1 1/2 inches
D. 2 inches

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