Which
Answer:
,2026/2027 Rationale:
NR 547 Final Exam
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Question 1
A 32-year-old patient presents with persistent low mood and loss of interest in
activities. There is no history of manic or hypomanic episodes. Which diagnosis best
fits this presentation?
• A. Bipolar I Disorder
• B. Bipolar II Disorder
• C. Major Depressive Disorder (Unipolar Depression)
• D. Cyclothymic Disorder
Correct Answer: C. Major Depressive Disorder (Unipolar Depression)
Rationale: Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) is defined by one or more major
depressive episodes without any historical presence of mania or hypomania. Bipolar
I requires at least one full manic episode, whereas Bipolar II requires hypomania
alongside depression. Cyclothymic disorder involves chronic mood fluctuations that
do not meet full criteria for either major depressive or hypomanic episodes. The
complete absence of manic or hypomanic features confirms unipolar depression.
Question 2
Which screening tool is specifically designed as a brief, self-report 9-item
questionnaire to assess depression severity in primary care settings?
• A. Beck Depression Inventory (BDI)
• B. Patient Health Questionnaire-9 (PHQ-9)
,2026/2027
Which
• C. Center for Epidemiologic Studies Depression Scale (CES-D)
• D. Hamilton Depression Rating Scale (HAM-D)
Correct Answer: B. PHQ-9
Rationale: The PHQ-9 is a validated 9-item self-report tool widely used in primary
care to screen for and measure the severity of depressive symptoms, as well as
monitor treatment response over time. In contrast, the BDI contains 21 items, the
CES-D contains 20 items, and the HAM-D is a clinician-administered scale rather
than a patient self-report questionnaire.
Question 3
A geriatric patient scores 6 on the Geriatric Depression Scale (GDS-15). How should
this result be interpreted by the clinician?
• A. No depression; no further evaluation needed
• B. Mild depression requiring pharmacologic or psychotherapeutic
intervention
• C. Moderate depression requiring hospitalization
• D. Severe depression requiring electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
Correct Answer: B. Mild depression requiring pharmacologic or
psychotherapeutic intervention
Rationale: On the 15-item GDS, scores of 0–4 are considered normal, 5–8 indicate
mild depression, 9–11 represent moderate depression, and 12–15 reflect severe
depression. A score of 6 suggests mild clinical depression requiring secondary
evaluation and consideration of psychotherapeutic or pharmacologic management
depending on functional impact.
Question 4
Which neurotransmitters are most strongly implicated in the pathophysiology of
major depression?
• A. Acetylcholine, GABA, glutamate
• B. Dopamine, serotonin, norepinephrine
• C. Histamine, epinephrine, melatonin
• D. Glycine, taurine, serotonin
Answer:
, 2026/2027 Rationale:
Correct Answer: B. Dopamine, serotonin, norepinephrine
Rationale: The monoamine hypothesis centers on impaired function or reduced
availability of serotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrine within key neural circuits
(such as the prefrontal cortex and limbic system). Dysregulation of these
monoamines directly drives mood alteration, anhedonia, fatigue, and executive
cognitive deficits.
Question 5
Which clinical feature is most characteristic of melancholic depression?
• A. Mood improves temporarily with positive events
• B. Increased appetite and hypersomnia
• C. Early morning awakening and loss of pleasure
• D. Emotional reactivity and rejection sensitivity
Correct Answer: C. Early morning awakening and loss of pleasure
Rationale: Melancholic depression is marked by profound anhedonia (inability to
experience pleasure), non-reactive mood, terminal insomnia (early morning
awakening), diurnal variation (mood worse in the morning), and weight
loss/anorexia. Conversely, mood reactivity, increased appetite (hyperphagia), and
hypersomnia are classic hallmarks of atypical depression.
Question 6
Which condition is defined by chronic irritability and severe, recurrent temper
outbursts in children, typically progressing to mood or anxiety disorders later in life?
• A. Cyclothymic disorder
• B. Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder (DMDD)
• C. Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD)
• D. Conduct disorder
Correct Answer: B. Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder (DMDD)
Rationale: DMDD was introduced in DSM-5 to address persistent, severe irritability
and frequent behavioral outbursts in children (onset before age 10), distinct from
episodic pediatric bipolar disorder. Long-term longitudinal data demonstrate that
children with DMDD are at highest risk for unipolar depression and anxiety
disorders in adulthood, rather than bipolar disorder.