NUR 2755: MULTIDIMENSIONAL
CARE IV (MDC 4) - RASMUSSEN
UNIVERSITY FINAL EXAM
LATEST MOCK PRACTICE SET
250 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NUR 2755: MULTIDIMENSIONAL CARE IV (MDC 4) - RASMUSSEN UNIVERSITY FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS
AND VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES LATEST UPDATE 2026/2027. It contains 250
carefully selected questions that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is
accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology,
pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 250 Questions
Foundations - Application - NUR 2755 Multidimensional CARE IV MDC 4 Rasmussen University AND
WITH Detailed Rationales Update 2026/2027 Nursing - Multidimensional CARE Undergraduate YEAR 4
Baccalaureate
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Section A - Management OF CARE Section B - Safety AND Infection
Questions 1 to 63 Control
Questions 64 to 126
Section C - Health Promotion AND Section D - Psychosocial Integrity
Maintenance Questions 190 to 250
Questions 127 to 189
,Section A - Management OF CARE
Q1.
A patient with septic shock has a mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 58 mm Hg despite fluid
resuscitation. Which vasopressor should be initiated as first-line therapy according to the
Surviving Sepsis Campaign guidelines?
A. Dopamine B. Norepinephrine
C. Epinephrine D. Vasopressin
Correct: B - Norepinephrine
Rationale:Norepinephrine is the first-line vasopressor for septic shock per Surviving Sepsis
Campaign guidelines due to its potent alpha-adrenergic effects and lower arrhythmia risk
compared to dopamine. Dopamine is no longer recommended as first-line. Epinephrine is
reserved for refractory cases. Vasopressin may be added as a second agent but not first-line.
Q2.
A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is on volume-controlled
ventilation with a tidal volume of 8 mL/kg ideal body weight. Which change best reflects
lung-protective ventilation strategy?
A. Increase tidal volume to 10 mL/kg to B. Decrease tidal volume to 6 mL/kg and
improve oxygenation adjust rate to maintain minute ventilation
C. Switch to pressure-controlled ventilation D. Increase positive end-expiratory pressure
with high inspiratory pressure (PEEP) without changing tidal volume
Correct: B - Decrease tidal volume to 6 mL/kg and adjust rate to maintain minute
ventilation
Rationale:Lung-protective ventilation in ARDS uses low tidal volumes (6 mL/kg ideal body
weight) to reduce ventilator-induced lung injury. Higher tidal volumes (8-10 mL/kg) increase
barotrauma. Pressure-controlled ventilation alone does not ensure low tidal volumes.
Increasing PEEP may be adjunctive but does not address tidal volume reduction.
Q3.
Which laboratory finding is most consistent with acute tubular necrosis (ATN) in a patient
with acute kidney injury?
A. Fractional excretion of sodium (FeNa) < B. Urine sodium < 20 mEq/L
1%
C. Fractional excretion of sodium (FeNa) > D. Urine osmolality > 500 mOsm/kg
2%
Page 3
, Section A - Management OF CARE
Correct: C - Fractional excretion of sodium (FeNa) > 2%
Rationale:In ATN, tubular damage impairs sodium reabsorption, leading to FeNa > 2% and
urine sodium > 40 mEq/L. FeNa < 1% suggests prerenal azotemia. Urine osmolality > 500
mOsm/kg indicates concentrating ability, which is lost in ATN.
Q4.
A patient with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) is on
sacubitril/valsartan. Which mechanism of action contributes to its benefit?
A. Inhibition of neprilysin increases B. Selective beta-1 blockade reduces
natriuretic peptide levels myocardial oxygen demand
C. Aldosterone antagonism decreases fluid D. Calcium channel blockade improves
retention ventricular relaxation
Correct: A - Inhibition of neprilysin increases natriuretic peptide levels
Rationale:Sacubitril/valsartan combines a neprilysin inhibitor (sacubitril) with an ARB
(valsartan). Neprilysin inhibition increases levels of natriuretic peptides, promoting
vasodilation and natriuresis. Beta-blockade, aldosterone antagonism, and calcium channel
blockade are not mechanisms of this drug.
Q5.
A patient with suspected heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) has a platelet count
drop of 50% from baseline. Which diagnostic test is most specific for confirming HIT?
A. Platelet factor 4 (PF4) enzyme-linked B. Serotonin release assay (SRA)
immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
C. Activated partial thromboplastin time D. Prothrombin time (PT)
(aPTT)
Correct: B - Serotonin release assay (SRA)
Rationale:The serotonin release assay (SRA) is the gold standard for HIT confirmation, with
high specificity (>95%). PF4 ELISA is sensitive but less specific, often yielding false positives.
aPTT and PT are not diagnostic for HIT.
Q6.
A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has a serum potassium of 2.8 mEq/L. What is
the priority intervention before initiating insulin therapy?
A. Administer intravenous fluids with normal B. Administer potassium replacement
saline
C. Administer sodium bicarbonate D. Administer insulin bolus
Page 4
CARE IV (MDC 4) - RASMUSSEN
UNIVERSITY FINAL EXAM
LATEST MOCK PRACTICE SET
250 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NUR 2755: MULTIDIMENSIONAL CARE IV (MDC 4) - RASMUSSEN UNIVERSITY FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS
AND VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES LATEST UPDATE 2026/2027. It contains 250
carefully selected questions that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is
accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology,
pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 250 Questions
Foundations - Application - NUR 2755 Multidimensional CARE IV MDC 4 Rasmussen University AND
WITH Detailed Rationales Update 2026/2027 Nursing - Multidimensional CARE Undergraduate YEAR 4
Baccalaureate
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Section A - Management OF CARE Section B - Safety AND Infection
Questions 1 to 63 Control
Questions 64 to 126
Section C - Health Promotion AND Section D - Psychosocial Integrity
Maintenance Questions 190 to 250
Questions 127 to 189
,Section A - Management OF CARE
Q1.
A patient with septic shock has a mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 58 mm Hg despite fluid
resuscitation. Which vasopressor should be initiated as first-line therapy according to the
Surviving Sepsis Campaign guidelines?
A. Dopamine B. Norepinephrine
C. Epinephrine D. Vasopressin
Correct: B - Norepinephrine
Rationale:Norepinephrine is the first-line vasopressor for septic shock per Surviving Sepsis
Campaign guidelines due to its potent alpha-adrenergic effects and lower arrhythmia risk
compared to dopamine. Dopamine is no longer recommended as first-line. Epinephrine is
reserved for refractory cases. Vasopressin may be added as a second agent but not first-line.
Q2.
A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is on volume-controlled
ventilation with a tidal volume of 8 mL/kg ideal body weight. Which change best reflects
lung-protective ventilation strategy?
A. Increase tidal volume to 10 mL/kg to B. Decrease tidal volume to 6 mL/kg and
improve oxygenation adjust rate to maintain minute ventilation
C. Switch to pressure-controlled ventilation D. Increase positive end-expiratory pressure
with high inspiratory pressure (PEEP) without changing tidal volume
Correct: B - Decrease tidal volume to 6 mL/kg and adjust rate to maintain minute
ventilation
Rationale:Lung-protective ventilation in ARDS uses low tidal volumes (6 mL/kg ideal body
weight) to reduce ventilator-induced lung injury. Higher tidal volumes (8-10 mL/kg) increase
barotrauma. Pressure-controlled ventilation alone does not ensure low tidal volumes.
Increasing PEEP may be adjunctive but does not address tidal volume reduction.
Q3.
Which laboratory finding is most consistent with acute tubular necrosis (ATN) in a patient
with acute kidney injury?
A. Fractional excretion of sodium (FeNa) < B. Urine sodium < 20 mEq/L
1%
C. Fractional excretion of sodium (FeNa) > D. Urine osmolality > 500 mOsm/kg
2%
Page 3
, Section A - Management OF CARE
Correct: C - Fractional excretion of sodium (FeNa) > 2%
Rationale:In ATN, tubular damage impairs sodium reabsorption, leading to FeNa > 2% and
urine sodium > 40 mEq/L. FeNa < 1% suggests prerenal azotemia. Urine osmolality > 500
mOsm/kg indicates concentrating ability, which is lost in ATN.
Q4.
A patient with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) is on
sacubitril/valsartan. Which mechanism of action contributes to its benefit?
A. Inhibition of neprilysin increases B. Selective beta-1 blockade reduces
natriuretic peptide levels myocardial oxygen demand
C. Aldosterone antagonism decreases fluid D. Calcium channel blockade improves
retention ventricular relaxation
Correct: A - Inhibition of neprilysin increases natriuretic peptide levels
Rationale:Sacubitril/valsartan combines a neprilysin inhibitor (sacubitril) with an ARB
(valsartan). Neprilysin inhibition increases levels of natriuretic peptides, promoting
vasodilation and natriuresis. Beta-blockade, aldosterone antagonism, and calcium channel
blockade are not mechanisms of this drug.
Q5.
A patient with suspected heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) has a platelet count
drop of 50% from baseline. Which diagnostic test is most specific for confirming HIT?
A. Platelet factor 4 (PF4) enzyme-linked B. Serotonin release assay (SRA)
immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
C. Activated partial thromboplastin time D. Prothrombin time (PT)
(aPTT)
Correct: B - Serotonin release assay (SRA)
Rationale:The serotonin release assay (SRA) is the gold standard for HIT confirmation, with
high specificity (>95%). PF4 ELISA is sensitive but less specific, often yielding false positives.
aPTT and PT are not diagnostic for HIT.
Q6.
A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has a serum potassium of 2.8 mEq/L. What is
the priority intervention before initiating insulin therapy?
A. Administer intravenous fluids with normal B. Administer potassium replacement
saline
C. Administer sodium bicarbonate D. Administer insulin bolus
Page 4
