NDEB RELEASED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+. 100% Verified Solutions | Updated Per Latest Guidelines | Graded A+
Core Domains
Applied Biomedical Sciences (Anatomy, Biochemistry, Biomaterials, Cariology, Growth and Development, Histology, Immunology, Microbiology, Oral Embryology,
Physiology)
Pharmacology and Therapeutics, Local Anesthesia, Medical Emergencies, Medicine
Orthodontics, Pediatric Dentistry, Geriatric Dentistry, Special Needs Patients
Periodontics (including Microbiology and Immunology)
Endodontics
Oral Medicine and Oral Pathology (including Histology, Oral Radiology)
Restorative Dentistry (Operative, Fixed and Removable Prosthodontics)
Oral Surgery, Pain Control, and Dental Public Health
Ethics, Professionalism, and Evidence-Based Practice
This comprehensive practice assessment evaluates the foundational knowledge and clinical reasoning required for successful completion of the National Dental Examining
Board of Canada (NDEB) examinations, including the Assessment of Fundamental Knowledge (AFK). The AFK consists of 200 single-answer multiple-choice questions
delivered in two parts, with two hours to complete each part. This assessment tests biomedical science and applied clinical science knowledge across all major dental
disciplines. Questions are presented in a multiple-choice format with scenario-based elements that emphasize clinical application, evidence-based practice, and professional
judgment. This guide prepares candidates for licensure by testing both theoretical knowledge and practical reasoning essential for beginning dental practitioners in Canada.
SECTION ONE
Questions 1–100
Question 1
A 45-year-old patient presents with a well-demarcated, painless white lesion on the buccal mucosa that cannot be rubbed off. The lesion has been present for several
months and the patient reports a 20-year history of smoking. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?
,A. Prescribe topical corticosteroid and schedule a 2-week follow-up.
B. Perform an incisional biopsy for histopathological examination.
C. Advise smoking cessation and schedule a 2-week follow-up.
D. Prescribe antifungal therapy and schedule a 2-week follow-up.
🟢 Correct Answer:
C. Advise smoking cessation and schedule a 2-week follow-up.
🔴 RATIONALE:
A well-demarcated, painless white lesion that cannot be rubbed off in a smoker is concerning for leukoplakia, a potentially premalignant lesion. The initial management
should include smoking cessation and a 2-week follow-up to assess for resolution. If the lesion persists after eliminating the irritant, biopsy is indicated. Topical
corticosteroids are for inflammatory conditions, and antifungals are for candidiasis, which typically rubs off.
Question 2
Which of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic for infections of pulpal origin?
A. Penicillin V
B. Lincomycin
C. Erythromycin
D. Tetracycline
🟢 Correct Answer:
A. Penicillin V
🔴 RATIONALE:
Penicillin V is the antibiotic of choice for odontogenic infections because it is effective against the most common organisms, including streptococci and anaerobes, and is
well-tolerated. Erythromycin is an alternative for penicillin-allergic patients. Lincomycin and tetracycline are not first-line agents for pulpal infections.
Question 3
A positive Nikolsky's sign is a diagnostic feature of which of the following conditions?
,A. Lichen planus
B. Erythema multiforme
C. Pemphigus
D. Chronic marginal gingivitis
E. Lupus erythematosus
🟢 Correct Answer:
C. Pemphigus
🔴 RATIONALE:
Nikolsky's sign—the ability to induce blistering or peeling of the epithelium with gentle lateral pressure—is a classic diagnostic feature of pemphigus vulgaris. This
autoimmune disease causes acantholysis, leading to intraepithelial blister formation. Lichen planus and erythema multiforme may present with erosions but are not
associated with a positive Nikolsky's sign.
Question 4
Before performing surgery on a patient who is taking warfarin, which of the following laboratory tests should be evaluated?
A. Bleeding time
B. Clotting time
C. Prothrombin time
D. Coagulation time
🟢 Correct Answer:
C. Prothrombin time
🔴 RATIONALE:
Prothrombin time (PT) and the International Normalized Ratio (INR) are the appropriate tests to evaluate the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Warfarin inhibits vitamin K-
dependent clotting factors (II, VII, IX, X), and PT reflects the activity of these factors. Bleeding time assesses platelet function, clotting time evaluates intrinsic pathway,
and coagulation time is a less specific measure.
Question 5
, Which of the following is the most likely cause of osteoporosis, glaucoma, hypertension, and peptic ulcers in a 65-year-old patient with Crohn's disease?
A. Chronic inflammation
B. Malnutrition
C. Long-term corticosteroid use
D. Genetic predisposition
🟢 Correct Answer:
C. Long-term corticosteroid use
🔴 RATIONALE:
Patients with Crohn's disease often require long-term corticosteroid therapy, which is associated with multiple systemic side effects including osteoporosis (bone loss),
glaucoma (increased intraocular pressure), hypertension (fluid retention and vasoconstriction), and peptic ulcers (increased gastric acid secretion). While chronic
inflammation and malnutrition may contribute, corticosteroids are the most likely unifying cause.
Question 6
For a sign, test, or symptom that has a high specificity (i.e., over 95%), which of the following statements is correct?
A. A positive result tends to rule in the diagnosis.
B. A positive result tends to rule out the diagnosis.
C. A negative result tends to rule in the diagnosis.
D. A negative result tends to rule out the diagnosis.
🟢 Correct Answer:
A. A positive result tends to rule in the diagnosis.
🔴 RATIONALE:
A highly specific test (SpIN) has a low false-positive rate, meaning that a positive result is very likely to confirm the presence of disease—"ruling in" the diagnosis. In
contrast, a highly sensitive test (SnNOUT) helps "rule out" disease when negative. This principle (SpIN and SnNOUT) is fundamental to evidence-based clinical decision-
making.
Question 7
Core Domains
Applied Biomedical Sciences (Anatomy, Biochemistry, Biomaterials, Cariology, Growth and Development, Histology, Immunology, Microbiology, Oral Embryology,
Physiology)
Pharmacology and Therapeutics, Local Anesthesia, Medical Emergencies, Medicine
Orthodontics, Pediatric Dentistry, Geriatric Dentistry, Special Needs Patients
Periodontics (including Microbiology and Immunology)
Endodontics
Oral Medicine and Oral Pathology (including Histology, Oral Radiology)
Restorative Dentistry (Operative, Fixed and Removable Prosthodontics)
Oral Surgery, Pain Control, and Dental Public Health
Ethics, Professionalism, and Evidence-Based Practice
This comprehensive practice assessment evaluates the foundational knowledge and clinical reasoning required for successful completion of the National Dental Examining
Board of Canada (NDEB) examinations, including the Assessment of Fundamental Knowledge (AFK). The AFK consists of 200 single-answer multiple-choice questions
delivered in two parts, with two hours to complete each part. This assessment tests biomedical science and applied clinical science knowledge across all major dental
disciplines. Questions are presented in a multiple-choice format with scenario-based elements that emphasize clinical application, evidence-based practice, and professional
judgment. This guide prepares candidates for licensure by testing both theoretical knowledge and practical reasoning essential for beginning dental practitioners in Canada.
SECTION ONE
Questions 1–100
Question 1
A 45-year-old patient presents with a well-demarcated, painless white lesion on the buccal mucosa that cannot be rubbed off. The lesion has been present for several
months and the patient reports a 20-year history of smoking. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?
,A. Prescribe topical corticosteroid and schedule a 2-week follow-up.
B. Perform an incisional biopsy for histopathological examination.
C. Advise smoking cessation and schedule a 2-week follow-up.
D. Prescribe antifungal therapy and schedule a 2-week follow-up.
🟢 Correct Answer:
C. Advise smoking cessation and schedule a 2-week follow-up.
🔴 RATIONALE:
A well-demarcated, painless white lesion that cannot be rubbed off in a smoker is concerning for leukoplakia, a potentially premalignant lesion. The initial management
should include smoking cessation and a 2-week follow-up to assess for resolution. If the lesion persists after eliminating the irritant, biopsy is indicated. Topical
corticosteroids are for inflammatory conditions, and antifungals are for candidiasis, which typically rubs off.
Question 2
Which of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic for infections of pulpal origin?
A. Penicillin V
B. Lincomycin
C. Erythromycin
D. Tetracycline
🟢 Correct Answer:
A. Penicillin V
🔴 RATIONALE:
Penicillin V is the antibiotic of choice for odontogenic infections because it is effective against the most common organisms, including streptococci and anaerobes, and is
well-tolerated. Erythromycin is an alternative for penicillin-allergic patients. Lincomycin and tetracycline are not first-line agents for pulpal infections.
Question 3
A positive Nikolsky's sign is a diagnostic feature of which of the following conditions?
,A. Lichen planus
B. Erythema multiforme
C. Pemphigus
D. Chronic marginal gingivitis
E. Lupus erythematosus
🟢 Correct Answer:
C. Pemphigus
🔴 RATIONALE:
Nikolsky's sign—the ability to induce blistering or peeling of the epithelium with gentle lateral pressure—is a classic diagnostic feature of pemphigus vulgaris. This
autoimmune disease causes acantholysis, leading to intraepithelial blister formation. Lichen planus and erythema multiforme may present with erosions but are not
associated with a positive Nikolsky's sign.
Question 4
Before performing surgery on a patient who is taking warfarin, which of the following laboratory tests should be evaluated?
A. Bleeding time
B. Clotting time
C. Prothrombin time
D. Coagulation time
🟢 Correct Answer:
C. Prothrombin time
🔴 RATIONALE:
Prothrombin time (PT) and the International Normalized Ratio (INR) are the appropriate tests to evaluate the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Warfarin inhibits vitamin K-
dependent clotting factors (II, VII, IX, X), and PT reflects the activity of these factors. Bleeding time assesses platelet function, clotting time evaluates intrinsic pathway,
and coagulation time is a less specific measure.
Question 5
, Which of the following is the most likely cause of osteoporosis, glaucoma, hypertension, and peptic ulcers in a 65-year-old patient with Crohn's disease?
A. Chronic inflammation
B. Malnutrition
C. Long-term corticosteroid use
D. Genetic predisposition
🟢 Correct Answer:
C. Long-term corticosteroid use
🔴 RATIONALE:
Patients with Crohn's disease often require long-term corticosteroid therapy, which is associated with multiple systemic side effects including osteoporosis (bone loss),
glaucoma (increased intraocular pressure), hypertension (fluid retention and vasoconstriction), and peptic ulcers (increased gastric acid secretion). While chronic
inflammation and malnutrition may contribute, corticosteroids are the most likely unifying cause.
Question 6
For a sign, test, or symptom that has a high specificity (i.e., over 95%), which of the following statements is correct?
A. A positive result tends to rule in the diagnosis.
B. A positive result tends to rule out the diagnosis.
C. A negative result tends to rule in the diagnosis.
D. A negative result tends to rule out the diagnosis.
🟢 Correct Answer:
A. A positive result tends to rule in the diagnosis.
🔴 RATIONALE:
A highly specific test (SpIN) has a low false-positive rate, meaning that a positive result is very likely to confirm the presence of disease—"ruling in" the diagnosis. In
contrast, a highly sensitive test (SnNOUT) helps "rule out" disease when negative. This principle (SpIN and SnNOUT) is fundamental to evidence-based clinical decision-
making.
Question 7
