ENPC 7TH EDITION EXAM/ENPC 7TH EDITION ACTUAL EXAM
2026-2027 COMPLETE EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS (100% CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS)
FREQUENTLY TESTED QUESTIONS AND SOLUTIONS/ NEWEST
UPDATED VERSION EDITION 2026 GUARANTEED PASS A+
|INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
A 6-year-old child presents with a sudden onset of high fever, stridor, and
drooling. The child is sitting upright and leaning forward. What is the priority
nursing intervention?
A) Prepare for immediate intubation
B) Obtain a throat culture
C) Administer nebulized racemic epinephrine
D) Transport the child to radiology for a neck X-ray
Correct Answer: A) Prepare for immediate intubation
Rationale: The presentation of high fever, stridor, drooling, and the tripod position
is classic for epiglottitis, which can rapidly progress to complete airway obstruction.
The priority is to prepare for immediate airway management, as manipulation or
agitation can precipitate respiratory arrest. Throat cultures and imaging are
contraindicated until the airway is secured, and racemic epinephrine is used for
croup, not epiglottitis.
,An 8-month-old infant is brought to the emergency department with
respiratory distress. The parents report a barking cough and hoarseness that
began suddenly at night. Vital signs show HR 160, RR 40, and SpO2 94% on
room air. What is the most appropriate initial intervention?
A) Prepare for endotracheal intubation
B) Administer a dose of intramuscular epinephrine
C) Administer a nebulized corticosteroid and racemic epinephrine
D) Obtain a rapid viral respiratory panel
Correct Answer: C) Administer a nebulized corticosteroid and racemic
epinephrine
Rationale: The symptoms of a barking cough, hoarseness, and sudden onset at night
are indicative of viral croup (laryngotracheobronchitis). The primary treatment for
moderate to severe croup includes nebulized racemic epinephrine to reduce subglottic
edema and a corticosteroid to decrease airway inflammation. Intubation is reserved
for impending respiratory failure, while a viral panel is not an immediate priority.
A 2-year-old child is in septic shock. Despite fluid resuscitation of 40 mL/kg of
isotonic crystalloid, the child remains hypotensive. Which intervention should
the nurse anticipate next?
A) Administer another 20 mL/kg fluid bolus
B) Initiate a dopamine infusion
C) Administer a blood transfusion
D) Start a norepinephrine infusion
Correct Answer: B) Initiate a dopamine infusion
,Rationale: In pediatric septic shock, if hypotension persists after 40-60 mL/kg of
fluid resuscitation, vasoactive support is indicated. Dopamine is the recommended
first-line vasopressor in pediatric patients. Norepinephrine is typically used in fluid-
refractory shock when dopamine is ineffective. Blood transfusions are indicated for
hemorrhagic shock or significant anemia.
A 5-year-old child is post-ictal after a generalized tonic-clonic seizure lasting 8
minutes. The child is not yet awake and has a GCS of 9. What is the nurse's
priority action?
A) Place the child in a side-lying position
B) Administer a loading dose of phenytoin
C) Prepare for immediate endotracheal intubation
D) Obtain a stat head CT scan
Correct Answer: A) Place the child in a side-lying position
Rationale: A child who is post-ictal with a decreased GCS is at high risk for airway
obstruction and aspiration. Placing the child in a side-lying (recovery) position helps
maintain a patent airway and allows secretions to drain. Intubation is indicated if
the child cannot protect the airway, but positioning is the immediate priority.
Phenytoin is for status epilepticus, and CT is not the immediate priority.
A 10-year-old child presents with a painful, swollen right lower extremity after
a fall from a bicycle. The nurse notes that the child's foot is pale, cool, and
pulseless. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A) Compartment syndrome
B) Deep vein thrombosis
C) Neurovascular compromise secondary to fracture
D) Hematoma formation
, Correct Answer: C) Neurovascular compromise secondary to fracture
Rationale: The classic signs of pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, and
poikilothermia (cold extremity) in a fractured limb indicate acute vascular
compromise, which is a surgical emergency. Compartment syndrome may present
with severe pain and paresthesia but usually progresses to pulselessness late. The
priority is to notify the provider immediately for potential reduction or surgical
intervention.
A 3-year-old child with a history of febrile seizures is actively seizing. The
seizure has lasted 6 minutes. What is the priority pharmacological
intervention?
A) Intravenous lorazepam
B) Rectal diazepam
C) Intranasal midazolam
D) Intravenous fosphenytoin
Correct Answer: C) Intranasal midazolam
Rationale: For a prolonged seizure (>5 minutes) in a child without IV access, the
preferred benzodiazepine route is intranasal or buccal midazolam due to its rapid
absorption and ease of administration. IV lorazepam is first-line if IV access is
already established, but the question implies no access. Rectal diazepam is an
alternative but less preferred in the emergency setting. Fosphenytoin is a second-line
agent.
A 4-month-old infant is brought in with a fever and irritability. The nurse notes
a bulging fontanel and a high-pitched cry. What is the priority diagnostic test?
A) Complete blood count and blood culture
2026-2027 COMPLETE EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS (100% CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS)
FREQUENTLY TESTED QUESTIONS AND SOLUTIONS/ NEWEST
UPDATED VERSION EDITION 2026 GUARANTEED PASS A+
|INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
A 6-year-old child presents with a sudden onset of high fever, stridor, and
drooling. The child is sitting upright and leaning forward. What is the priority
nursing intervention?
A) Prepare for immediate intubation
B) Obtain a throat culture
C) Administer nebulized racemic epinephrine
D) Transport the child to radiology for a neck X-ray
Correct Answer: A) Prepare for immediate intubation
Rationale: The presentation of high fever, stridor, drooling, and the tripod position
is classic for epiglottitis, which can rapidly progress to complete airway obstruction.
The priority is to prepare for immediate airway management, as manipulation or
agitation can precipitate respiratory arrest. Throat cultures and imaging are
contraindicated until the airway is secured, and racemic epinephrine is used for
croup, not epiglottitis.
,An 8-month-old infant is brought to the emergency department with
respiratory distress. The parents report a barking cough and hoarseness that
began suddenly at night. Vital signs show HR 160, RR 40, and SpO2 94% on
room air. What is the most appropriate initial intervention?
A) Prepare for endotracheal intubation
B) Administer a dose of intramuscular epinephrine
C) Administer a nebulized corticosteroid and racemic epinephrine
D) Obtain a rapid viral respiratory panel
Correct Answer: C) Administer a nebulized corticosteroid and racemic
epinephrine
Rationale: The symptoms of a barking cough, hoarseness, and sudden onset at night
are indicative of viral croup (laryngotracheobronchitis). The primary treatment for
moderate to severe croup includes nebulized racemic epinephrine to reduce subglottic
edema and a corticosteroid to decrease airway inflammation. Intubation is reserved
for impending respiratory failure, while a viral panel is not an immediate priority.
A 2-year-old child is in septic shock. Despite fluid resuscitation of 40 mL/kg of
isotonic crystalloid, the child remains hypotensive. Which intervention should
the nurse anticipate next?
A) Administer another 20 mL/kg fluid bolus
B) Initiate a dopamine infusion
C) Administer a blood transfusion
D) Start a norepinephrine infusion
Correct Answer: B) Initiate a dopamine infusion
,Rationale: In pediatric septic shock, if hypotension persists after 40-60 mL/kg of
fluid resuscitation, vasoactive support is indicated. Dopamine is the recommended
first-line vasopressor in pediatric patients. Norepinephrine is typically used in fluid-
refractory shock when dopamine is ineffective. Blood transfusions are indicated for
hemorrhagic shock or significant anemia.
A 5-year-old child is post-ictal after a generalized tonic-clonic seizure lasting 8
minutes. The child is not yet awake and has a GCS of 9. What is the nurse's
priority action?
A) Place the child in a side-lying position
B) Administer a loading dose of phenytoin
C) Prepare for immediate endotracheal intubation
D) Obtain a stat head CT scan
Correct Answer: A) Place the child in a side-lying position
Rationale: A child who is post-ictal with a decreased GCS is at high risk for airway
obstruction and aspiration. Placing the child in a side-lying (recovery) position helps
maintain a patent airway and allows secretions to drain. Intubation is indicated if
the child cannot protect the airway, but positioning is the immediate priority.
Phenytoin is for status epilepticus, and CT is not the immediate priority.
A 10-year-old child presents with a painful, swollen right lower extremity after
a fall from a bicycle. The nurse notes that the child's foot is pale, cool, and
pulseless. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A) Compartment syndrome
B) Deep vein thrombosis
C) Neurovascular compromise secondary to fracture
D) Hematoma formation
, Correct Answer: C) Neurovascular compromise secondary to fracture
Rationale: The classic signs of pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, and
poikilothermia (cold extremity) in a fractured limb indicate acute vascular
compromise, which is a surgical emergency. Compartment syndrome may present
with severe pain and paresthesia but usually progresses to pulselessness late. The
priority is to notify the provider immediately for potential reduction or surgical
intervention.
A 3-year-old child with a history of febrile seizures is actively seizing. The
seizure has lasted 6 minutes. What is the priority pharmacological
intervention?
A) Intravenous lorazepam
B) Rectal diazepam
C) Intranasal midazolam
D) Intravenous fosphenytoin
Correct Answer: C) Intranasal midazolam
Rationale: For a prolonged seizure (>5 minutes) in a child without IV access, the
preferred benzodiazepine route is intranasal or buccal midazolam due to its rapid
absorption and ease of administration. IV lorazepam is first-line if IV access is
already established, but the question implies no access. Rectal diazepam is an
alternative but less preferred in the emergency setting. Fosphenytoin is a second-line
agent.
A 4-month-old infant is brought in with a fever and irritability. The nurse notes
a bulging fontanel and a high-pitched cry. What is the priority diagnostic test?
A) Complete blood count and blood culture
