ABFM & KSA OBGYN Certification Exam Prep 2026/2027 Questions
and Answers |Rationales
1. A 26-year-old primigravida presents for a routine prenatal visit at 26 weeks.
Which screening test is most appropriate at this gestational age?
A. Group B Streptococcus screening
B. Quadruple marker screen
C. Nuchal translucency screening
D. One-hour glucose challenge test
Answer: D
Rationale: Screening for gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) is typically performed
between 24 and 28 weeks of gestation using a 50g glucose challenge test.
2. According to the USPSTF, at what age should routine screening for cervical
cancer with cytology alone begin in a person with a cervix?
A. 18 years
B. 21 years
C. 25 years
D. 30 years
Answer: B
Rationale: Cervical cancer screening should begin at age 21 with cytology (Pap test) every
3 years, regardless of the age of sexual onset.
,3. A postpartum woman presents with a painful, erythematous area on her right
breast and a fever of 102°F. She is breastfeeding. What is the first-line antibiotic
treatment for this condition?
A. Dicloxacillin
B. Metronidazole
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Azithromycin
Answer: A
Rationale: Lactational mastitis is most commonly caused by S. aureus; Dicloxacillin or
Cephalexin are appropriate first-line treatments.
4. Which of the following is the most appropriate timing for Group B
Streptococcus (GBS) screening in pregnancy?
A. 36 0/7–37 6/7 weeks
B. 32–34 weeks
C. 28–30 weeks
D. At the onset of labor
Answer: A
Rationale: ACOG and ABFM guidelines recommend universal GBS screening at 36 0/7 to
37 6/7 weeks of gestation.
5. A 32-year-old female with PCOS wants to regulate her menstrual cycles but
does not desire pregnancy. What is the first-line pharmacological therapy?
A. Combined oral contraceptives
B. Metformin
C. Clomiphene citrate
D. Spironolactone
Answer: A
, Rationale: Combined oral contraceptives are first-line for cycle regulation and treating
hirsutism in PCOS patients not seeking pregnancy.
6. Which clinical finding is part of the ‘Amsel criteria’ for the diagnosis of
bacterial vaginosis?
A. Vaginal pH less than 4.5
B. Presence of clue cells on wet mount
C. Yellow-green frothy discharge
D. Negative Whiff test
Answer: B
Rationale: Amsel criteria include: thin homogenous discharge, pH > 4.5, positive whiff test,
and clue cells on microscopy.
7. A 28-year-old G1P0 at 32 weeks gestation presents with BP 150/95 mmHg
and 2+ proteinuria. She has no headache or visual changes. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Gestational hypertension
B. Chronic hypertension
C. Preeclampsia without severe features
D. Preeclampsia with severe features
Answer: C
Rationale: Preeclampsia is defined as BP ≥140/90 after 20 weeks with proteinuria; ‘severe
features’ include BP ≥160/110, thrombocytopenia, or CNS symptoms.
and Answers |Rationales
1. A 26-year-old primigravida presents for a routine prenatal visit at 26 weeks.
Which screening test is most appropriate at this gestational age?
A. Group B Streptococcus screening
B. Quadruple marker screen
C. Nuchal translucency screening
D. One-hour glucose challenge test
Answer: D
Rationale: Screening for gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) is typically performed
between 24 and 28 weeks of gestation using a 50g glucose challenge test.
2. According to the USPSTF, at what age should routine screening for cervical
cancer with cytology alone begin in a person with a cervix?
A. 18 years
B. 21 years
C. 25 years
D. 30 years
Answer: B
Rationale: Cervical cancer screening should begin at age 21 with cytology (Pap test) every
3 years, regardless of the age of sexual onset.
,3. A postpartum woman presents with a painful, erythematous area on her right
breast and a fever of 102°F. She is breastfeeding. What is the first-line antibiotic
treatment for this condition?
A. Dicloxacillin
B. Metronidazole
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Azithromycin
Answer: A
Rationale: Lactational mastitis is most commonly caused by S. aureus; Dicloxacillin or
Cephalexin are appropriate first-line treatments.
4. Which of the following is the most appropriate timing for Group B
Streptococcus (GBS) screening in pregnancy?
A. 36 0/7–37 6/7 weeks
B. 32–34 weeks
C. 28–30 weeks
D. At the onset of labor
Answer: A
Rationale: ACOG and ABFM guidelines recommend universal GBS screening at 36 0/7 to
37 6/7 weeks of gestation.
5. A 32-year-old female with PCOS wants to regulate her menstrual cycles but
does not desire pregnancy. What is the first-line pharmacological therapy?
A. Combined oral contraceptives
B. Metformin
C. Clomiphene citrate
D. Spironolactone
Answer: A
, Rationale: Combined oral contraceptives are first-line for cycle regulation and treating
hirsutism in PCOS patients not seeking pregnancy.
6. Which clinical finding is part of the ‘Amsel criteria’ for the diagnosis of
bacterial vaginosis?
A. Vaginal pH less than 4.5
B. Presence of clue cells on wet mount
C. Yellow-green frothy discharge
D. Negative Whiff test
Answer: B
Rationale: Amsel criteria include: thin homogenous discharge, pH > 4.5, positive whiff test,
and clue cells on microscopy.
7. A 28-year-old G1P0 at 32 weeks gestation presents with BP 150/95 mmHg
and 2+ proteinuria. She has no headache or visual changes. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Gestational hypertension
B. Chronic hypertension
C. Preeclampsia without severe features
D. Preeclampsia with severe features
Answer: C
Rationale: Preeclampsia is defined as BP ≥140/90 after 20 weeks with proteinuria; ‘severe
features’ include BP ≥160/110, thrombocytopenia, or CNS symptoms.
