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NR667 CEA FNP Comprehensive Review Newest
Exam Preparation With Complete Questions And
Correct Answers With Rationales Already Graded
A+ Brand New Version!!
Question 1
A 45-year-old male with a 30-pack-year smoking history presents with a
chronic cough, hemoptysis, and weight loss. A chest CT reveals a central
mass with mediastinal lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is the
most appropriate next step in diagnosis?
A) Sputum cytology
B) Bronchoscopy with biopsy
C) CT-guided fine-needle aspiration
D) Positron emission tomography (PET) scan
Answer: B) Bronchoscopy with biopsy
Explanation: For a central chest mass with mediastinal involvement,
bronchoscopy with biopsy is the diagnostic procedure of choice because
it allows direct visualization and tissue sampling of endobronchial
lesions. Sputum cytology has low sensitivity. CT-guided biopsy may be
used for peripheral lesions, and PET is a staging tool, not a primary
diagnostic modality.
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Question 2
A 68-year-old female with osteoporosis is prescribed alendronate.
Which of the following instructions is most important to provide
regarding administration?
A) Take with food to minimize gastrointestinal upset
B) Take with a full glass of water and remain upright for 30 minutes
C) Take with calcium supplementation to enhance absorption
D) Take at bedtime to reduce side effects
Answer: B) Take with a full glass of water and remain upright for 30
minutes
Explanation: Alendronate can cause esophageal irritation and
ulceration. It must be taken on an empty stomach with a full glass of
water, and the patient must remain upright for at least 30 minutes to
prevent pill-induced esophagitis.
Question 3
A 55-year-old male with hypertension is noted to have a serum
potassium of 6.2 mEq/L. His medications include lisinopril,
hydrochlorothiazide, and ibuprofen as needed. Which of the following
is the most likely cause?
A) Hydrochlorothiazide
B) Lisinopril
C) Ibuprofen
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D) Diet high in potassium
Answer: C) Ibuprofen
Explanation: NSAIDs such as ibuprofen can reduce renal blood flow and
impair potassium excretion, contributing to hyperkalemia, especially
when combined with ACE inhibitors like lisinopril. Hydrochlorothiazide
typically causes hypokalemia. The question highlights a drug
interaction.
Question 4
A 30-year-old female presents with fatigue, cold intolerance, and
weight gain. Physical exam reveals bradycardia and a palpable goiter.
Laboratory studies show elevated TSH and low free T4. Which of the
following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Graves disease
B) Hashimoto thyroiditis
C) Subacute thyroiditis
D) Toxic multinodular goiter
Answer: B) Hashimoto thyroiditis
Explanation: Hashimoto thyroiditis is the most common cause of
primary hypothyroidism in iodine-sufficient areas and is characterized
by elevated TSH, low free T4, and often a goiter. Graves disease and
toxic multinodular goiter are hyperthyroid states, and subacute
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thyroiditis usually has transient hyperthyroidism followed by
hypothyroidism.
Question 5
A 72-year-old male with a history of atrial fibrillation is on warfarin. His
INR is 5.2, and he is asymptomatic. Which of the following is the most
appropriate management?
A) Hold warfarin and administer vitamin K orally
B) Hold warfarin and restart when INR is therapeutic
C) Administer fresh frozen plasma
D) Administer vitamin K subcutaneously
Answer: B) Hold warfarin and restart when INR is therapeutic
Explanation: For an asymptomatic patient with an INR between 5 and 9,
the standard recommendation is to hold warfarin and resume when the
INR is in the therapeutic range. Vitamin K is reserved for more severe
elevations or bleeding, and FFP is for active bleeding.
Question 6
A 60-year-old female with type 2 diabetes presents with a non-healing
ulcer on her heel. The ulcer is 3 cm in diameter, extends to the bone,
and there is surrounding erythema. There is no purulent drainage.
What is the most appropriate initial antibiotic regimen?
A) Cephalexin
B) Vancomycin plus piperacillin-tazobactam
NR667 CEA FNP Comprehensive Review Newest
Exam Preparation With Complete Questions And
Correct Answers With Rationales Already Graded
A+ Brand New Version!!
Question 1
A 45-year-old male with a 30-pack-year smoking history presents with a
chronic cough, hemoptysis, and weight loss. A chest CT reveals a central
mass with mediastinal lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is the
most appropriate next step in diagnosis?
A) Sputum cytology
B) Bronchoscopy with biopsy
C) CT-guided fine-needle aspiration
D) Positron emission tomography (PET) scan
Answer: B) Bronchoscopy with biopsy
Explanation: For a central chest mass with mediastinal involvement,
bronchoscopy with biopsy is the diagnostic procedure of choice because
it allows direct visualization and tissue sampling of endobronchial
lesions. Sputum cytology has low sensitivity. CT-guided biopsy may be
used for peripheral lesions, and PET is a staging tool, not a primary
diagnostic modality.
,2|Page
Question 2
A 68-year-old female with osteoporosis is prescribed alendronate.
Which of the following instructions is most important to provide
regarding administration?
A) Take with food to minimize gastrointestinal upset
B) Take with a full glass of water and remain upright for 30 minutes
C) Take with calcium supplementation to enhance absorption
D) Take at bedtime to reduce side effects
Answer: B) Take with a full glass of water and remain upright for 30
minutes
Explanation: Alendronate can cause esophageal irritation and
ulceration. It must be taken on an empty stomach with a full glass of
water, and the patient must remain upright for at least 30 minutes to
prevent pill-induced esophagitis.
Question 3
A 55-year-old male with hypertension is noted to have a serum
potassium of 6.2 mEq/L. His medications include lisinopril,
hydrochlorothiazide, and ibuprofen as needed. Which of the following
is the most likely cause?
A) Hydrochlorothiazide
B) Lisinopril
C) Ibuprofen
,3|Page
D) Diet high in potassium
Answer: C) Ibuprofen
Explanation: NSAIDs such as ibuprofen can reduce renal blood flow and
impair potassium excretion, contributing to hyperkalemia, especially
when combined with ACE inhibitors like lisinopril. Hydrochlorothiazide
typically causes hypokalemia. The question highlights a drug
interaction.
Question 4
A 30-year-old female presents with fatigue, cold intolerance, and
weight gain. Physical exam reveals bradycardia and a palpable goiter.
Laboratory studies show elevated TSH and low free T4. Which of the
following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Graves disease
B) Hashimoto thyroiditis
C) Subacute thyroiditis
D) Toxic multinodular goiter
Answer: B) Hashimoto thyroiditis
Explanation: Hashimoto thyroiditis is the most common cause of
primary hypothyroidism in iodine-sufficient areas and is characterized
by elevated TSH, low free T4, and often a goiter. Graves disease and
toxic multinodular goiter are hyperthyroid states, and subacute
, 4|Page
thyroiditis usually has transient hyperthyroidism followed by
hypothyroidism.
Question 5
A 72-year-old male with a history of atrial fibrillation is on warfarin. His
INR is 5.2, and he is asymptomatic. Which of the following is the most
appropriate management?
A) Hold warfarin and administer vitamin K orally
B) Hold warfarin and restart when INR is therapeutic
C) Administer fresh frozen plasma
D) Administer vitamin K subcutaneously
Answer: B) Hold warfarin and restart when INR is therapeutic
Explanation: For an asymptomatic patient with an INR between 5 and 9,
the standard recommendation is to hold warfarin and resume when the
INR is in the therapeutic range. Vitamin K is reserved for more severe
elevations or bleeding, and FFP is for active bleeding.
Question 6
A 60-year-old female with type 2 diabetes presents with a non-healing
ulcer on her heel. The ulcer is 3 cm in diameter, extends to the bone,
and there is surrounding erythema. There is no purulent drainage.
What is the most appropriate initial antibiotic regimen?
A) Cephalexin
B) Vancomycin plus piperacillin-tazobactam
