GALEN NUR 210 EXAM 1 MODULES 1-3 – EXAM-STYLE QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS | VERIFIED AND WELL DETAILED ANSWERS | PLUS RATIONALES |
GUARANTEED PASS | 2026/27 LATEST UPDATE | EXAM PREP | STUDY GUIDE |
PRACTICE TEST
1. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is
receiving oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. The nurse observes the client's
respiratory rate has decreased from 22 breaths per minute to 10 breaths per
minute. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 4 L/min.
B. Document the change as an expected outcome.
C. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position.
D. Assess the client's level of consciousness and arterial blood gases.
Correct Answer: D. Assess the client's level of consciousness and arterial blood
gases.
Rationale: In clients with COPD, the respiratory drive is often stimulated by hypoxia.
A decrease in respiratory rate following oxygen administration can indicate a loss of
hypoxic drive, leading to hypoventilation and carbon dioxide retention. The priority
is to assess the client's neurological status and obtain ABGs to evaluate ventilation
and oxygenation. Increasing oxygen (A) could worsen hypoventilation.
Documenting the change as expected (B) is premature without a full assessment.
Positioning (C) is helpful but not the priority over assessing the client's response to
therapy.
2. A nurse is preparing to insert a nasogastric (NG) tube for a client with a
bowel obstruction. Which action should the nurse take to best verify the tube's
placement after insertion?
,A. Aspirate gastric contents and check the pH.
B. Auscultate for a whooshing sound over the epigastrium.
C. Place the end of the tube in a container of water to observe for bubbles.
D. Measure the length of the tube from the nares to the xiphoid process.
Correct Answer: A. Aspirate gastric contents and check the pH.
Rationale: The most reliable method at the bedside is to aspirate gastric contents
and test the pH, which should be acidic (typically 5 or less). Auscultation (B) is an
unreliable method and no longer recommended as a sole verification. Observing for
bubbles (C) is a method to check for tracheal placement during insertion, not for
verification after placement. Measuring the tube length (D) is a component of initial
placement assessment but does not verify that the tube is in the stomach, as it
could still be in the esophagus or lungs.
3. A client is prescribed a low-sodium diet for the management of heart failure.
Which food selection by the client indicates a correct understanding of the
teaching?
A. A ham and cheese sandwich on white bread.
B. A baked potato with a small amount of unsalted butter.
C. A can of vegetable soup with crackers.
D. A serving of pickles and olives.
Correct Answer: B. A baked potato with a small amount of unsalted butter.
Rationale: A baked potato is naturally low in sodium, and unsalted butter is an
acceptable choice. Ham (A), canned soups (C), and pickles/olives (D) are all
notoriously high in sodium due to processing and preservation methods.
,4. A client who has undergone a total knee arthroplasty is 24 hours post-
operative. The nurse identifies a small amount of serosanguineous drainage on
the dressing. What is the most appropriate initial nursing action?
A. Remove the dressing immediately to inspect the incision.
B. Apply a sterile gauze pad over the drainage and reinforce the dressing.
C. Assess the drainage amount and characteristics and document the finding.
D. Notify the surgeon of a potential wound infection.
Correct Answer: C. Assess the drainage amount and characteristics and document
the finding.
Rationale: Serosanguineous drainage is a normal finding within the first 24-48
hours post-surgery. The nurse should assess the amount, color, and consistency,
mark the drainage on the dressing to monitor for increased output, and document
the finding. Removing the dressing (A) increases infection risk and is not necessary
for a small amount. Reinforcing the dressing (B) is appropriate if drainage is
moderate, but assessment is the priority first. Notifying the surgeon (D) is not
indicated for a small amount of normal drainage.
5. A nurse is administering 500 mL of intravenous fluids over 4 hours. The IV
administration set delivers 15 drops per milliliter. At what rate (in drops per
minute) should the nurse set the infusion?
A. 21 gtt/min
B. 31 gtt/min
C. 42 gtt/min
D. 53 gtt/min
Correct Answer: B. 31 gtt/min
, Rationale: The formula is (Total Volume × Drop Factor) / Time in Minutes. (500 mL
× 15 gtt/mL) / (4 hours × 60 minutes) = = 31.25 gtt/min, which is
rounded to 31 gtt/min. Option A (21) is a miscalculation. Option C (42) is a
miscalculation. Option D (53) is a miscalculation.
6. A nurse is providing post-mortem care for a client who has died. Which
action is a priority in this situation?
A. Placing the client in a supine position with a small pillow under the head.
B. Performing a complete bed bath and changing the linens.
C. Removing all tubes and catheters after obtaining a physician's order.
D. Ensuring the client's body is correctly identified and prepared for viewing by
family.
Correct Answer: D. Ensuring the client's body is correctly identified and prepared
for viewing by family.
Rationale: While all options are aspects of post-mortem care, the priority is to
respect the client's and family's wishes by properly identifying the body and
preparing it in a dignified manner to facilitate closure for the family. The body is
typically placed in a supine position with a pillow (A) but is not the highest priority.
A bed bath (B) may be done but is not the priority. Removing tubes (C) often
requires a physician's order or facility policy, but identification and preparation for
family take precedence.
7. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new diagnosis of
diabetes mellitus. The client asks, "Why is it so important to check my blood
sugar before I eat?" Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. "It is important to know if your blood sugar is low before you take your
insulin."
ANSWERS | VERIFIED AND WELL DETAILED ANSWERS | PLUS RATIONALES |
GUARANTEED PASS | 2026/27 LATEST UPDATE | EXAM PREP | STUDY GUIDE |
PRACTICE TEST
1. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is
receiving oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. The nurse observes the client's
respiratory rate has decreased from 22 breaths per minute to 10 breaths per
minute. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 4 L/min.
B. Document the change as an expected outcome.
C. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position.
D. Assess the client's level of consciousness and arterial blood gases.
Correct Answer: D. Assess the client's level of consciousness and arterial blood
gases.
Rationale: In clients with COPD, the respiratory drive is often stimulated by hypoxia.
A decrease in respiratory rate following oxygen administration can indicate a loss of
hypoxic drive, leading to hypoventilation and carbon dioxide retention. The priority
is to assess the client's neurological status and obtain ABGs to evaluate ventilation
and oxygenation. Increasing oxygen (A) could worsen hypoventilation.
Documenting the change as expected (B) is premature without a full assessment.
Positioning (C) is helpful but not the priority over assessing the client's response to
therapy.
2. A nurse is preparing to insert a nasogastric (NG) tube for a client with a
bowel obstruction. Which action should the nurse take to best verify the tube's
placement after insertion?
,A. Aspirate gastric contents and check the pH.
B. Auscultate for a whooshing sound over the epigastrium.
C. Place the end of the tube in a container of water to observe for bubbles.
D. Measure the length of the tube from the nares to the xiphoid process.
Correct Answer: A. Aspirate gastric contents and check the pH.
Rationale: The most reliable method at the bedside is to aspirate gastric contents
and test the pH, which should be acidic (typically 5 or less). Auscultation (B) is an
unreliable method and no longer recommended as a sole verification. Observing for
bubbles (C) is a method to check for tracheal placement during insertion, not for
verification after placement. Measuring the tube length (D) is a component of initial
placement assessment but does not verify that the tube is in the stomach, as it
could still be in the esophagus or lungs.
3. A client is prescribed a low-sodium diet for the management of heart failure.
Which food selection by the client indicates a correct understanding of the
teaching?
A. A ham and cheese sandwich on white bread.
B. A baked potato with a small amount of unsalted butter.
C. A can of vegetable soup with crackers.
D. A serving of pickles and olives.
Correct Answer: B. A baked potato with a small amount of unsalted butter.
Rationale: A baked potato is naturally low in sodium, and unsalted butter is an
acceptable choice. Ham (A), canned soups (C), and pickles/olives (D) are all
notoriously high in sodium due to processing and preservation methods.
,4. A client who has undergone a total knee arthroplasty is 24 hours post-
operative. The nurse identifies a small amount of serosanguineous drainage on
the dressing. What is the most appropriate initial nursing action?
A. Remove the dressing immediately to inspect the incision.
B. Apply a sterile gauze pad over the drainage and reinforce the dressing.
C. Assess the drainage amount and characteristics and document the finding.
D. Notify the surgeon of a potential wound infection.
Correct Answer: C. Assess the drainage amount and characteristics and document
the finding.
Rationale: Serosanguineous drainage is a normal finding within the first 24-48
hours post-surgery. The nurse should assess the amount, color, and consistency,
mark the drainage on the dressing to monitor for increased output, and document
the finding. Removing the dressing (A) increases infection risk and is not necessary
for a small amount. Reinforcing the dressing (B) is appropriate if drainage is
moderate, but assessment is the priority first. Notifying the surgeon (D) is not
indicated for a small amount of normal drainage.
5. A nurse is administering 500 mL of intravenous fluids over 4 hours. The IV
administration set delivers 15 drops per milliliter. At what rate (in drops per
minute) should the nurse set the infusion?
A. 21 gtt/min
B. 31 gtt/min
C. 42 gtt/min
D. 53 gtt/min
Correct Answer: B. 31 gtt/min
, Rationale: The formula is (Total Volume × Drop Factor) / Time in Minutes. (500 mL
× 15 gtt/mL) / (4 hours × 60 minutes) = = 31.25 gtt/min, which is
rounded to 31 gtt/min. Option A (21) is a miscalculation. Option C (42) is a
miscalculation. Option D (53) is a miscalculation.
6. A nurse is providing post-mortem care for a client who has died. Which
action is a priority in this situation?
A. Placing the client in a supine position with a small pillow under the head.
B. Performing a complete bed bath and changing the linens.
C. Removing all tubes and catheters after obtaining a physician's order.
D. Ensuring the client's body is correctly identified and prepared for viewing by
family.
Correct Answer: D. Ensuring the client's body is correctly identified and prepared
for viewing by family.
Rationale: While all options are aspects of post-mortem care, the priority is to
respect the client's and family's wishes by properly identifying the body and
preparing it in a dignified manner to facilitate closure for the family. The body is
typically placed in a supine position with a pillow (A) but is not the highest priority.
A bed bath (B) may be done but is not the priority. Removing tubes (C) often
requires a physician's order or facility policy, but identification and preparation for
family take precedence.
7. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new diagnosis of
diabetes mellitus. The client asks, "Why is it so important to check my blood
sugar before I eat?" Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. "It is important to know if your blood sugar is low before you take your
insulin."
