Occupational Health Nurse (COHN) Practice
Examination DEFINED ANSWERS LATEST
ALREADY GRADED A+ (2025/2026)
1. A 28-year-old employee sustains a laceration on the forearm from a piece of
machinery. The wound bleeds profusely at first. What is the FIRST step in
managing this injury in the occupational health clinic?
A) Apply a tourniquet 2 inches above the wound.
B) Cleanse the wound thoroughly with povidone-iodine.
C) Apply direct pressure with a sterile dressing.
D) Immediately assess range of motion of the affected limb.
Answer: C
Rationale: The immediate priority in wound care with active bleeding is to control
hemorrhage using direct pressure. A tourniquet is reserved for life-threatening
hemorrhage when direct pressure fails. Cleansing and assessment occur after
bleeding is controlled.
2. An employee returns to work after a back injury with a 20-pound lifting
restriction. The supervisor asks the employee to move boxes weighing 35 pounds.
The OHN's MOST appropriate action is to:
A) Instruct the employee to politely refuse the task and file a grievance.
B) Educate the supervisor on the specifics of the medical restriction and the risk of
re-injury.
C) Advise the employee to perform the task using a buddy system.
,D) Revise the restriction to 35 pounds temporarily.
Answer: B
Rationale: The OHN's role is to advocate for worker safety by interpreting medical
restrictions and educating management on potential health and liability risks. A
temporary work modification violates the healthcare provider's order. Refusal can
lead to disciplinary issues; education is the first collaborative step.
3. During a pre-placement physical exam, an applicant reveals a history of well-
controlled asthma. The job requires occasional use of a full-face respirator. The
OHN should:
A) Disqualify the applicant immediately due to respiratory history.
B) Refer the applicant for a pulmonary function test and respirator clearance
evaluation.
C) Ask the applicant to sign a waiver for any respiratory complications.
D) Ignore the history since the asthma is well-controlled.
Answer: B
Rationale: OSHA's Respiratory Protection Standard mandates a medical
evaluation to determine an employee's ability to use a respirator before fit
testing. Asthma is a relative contraindication; a physician or licensed health care
professional must determine clearance. The OHN cannot arbitrarily disqualify or
ignore the condition.
4. An employee reports to the occupational health clinic 30 minutes after a
chemical splash to the eye. The first priority intervention is:
A) Instilling fluorescein stain to check for corneal abrasions.
B) Measuring the pH of the ocular surface.
C) Immediate, prolonged flushing of the eye with water or saline.
D) Obtaining the Safety Data Sheet for the chemical.
,Answer: C
Rationale: Copious, immediate irrigation is the cornerstone of treating ocular
chemical burns to remove the substance and normalize pH. A Morgan lens may
be used. Delaying irrigation to find an SDS or do an exam increases the severity of
the injury. Seconds count.
5. A hearing conservation program must be established when employee noise
exposures equal or exceed an 8-hour time-weighted average of:
A) 75 dBA
B) 85 dBA
C) 90 dBA
D) 100 dBA
Answer: B
Rationale: Per OSHA's Hearing Conservation Amendment, an 85 dBA TWA over 8
hours is the "action level." At this level, a program including monitoring,
audiometric testing, training, and hearing protector provision is required. 90 dBA
is the Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL) requiring feasible engineering controls.
6. An OHN calculates an incidence rate of 8.5 injuries per 100 full-time workers.
This rate is BEST used for:
A) Determining the exact monetary cost of the injuries.
B) Comparing the company's safety performance with the national industry
average.
C) Identifying which individual employee is most accident-prone.
D) Replacing the need for a root cause analysis of incidents.
Answer: B
, Rationale: Incidence rates (per 200,000 hours worked) provide a standardized
metric for trend analysis within a company and for external benchmarking against
Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS) industry data. They do not identify individual
causes or costs.
7. A 45-year-old male employee with no known history of diabetes faints at work.
A fingerstick glucose reads 40 mg/dL. He is awake but confused and diaphoretic.
The BEST immediate treatment is:
A) A diet soda and a cheese stick.
B) A glass of orange juice with sugar added, or an oral glucose gel.
C) An injection of long-acting insulin.
D) Encouraging him to lie down until symptoms pass naturally.
Answer: B
Rationale: The presentation indicates severe hypoglycemia. An awake and alert
individual (able to protect their airway) should receive fast-acting simple
carbohydrates (15-20 grams). Orange juice with sugar or glucose gel is ideal.
Complex carbs and protein (cheese) are for maintenance after recovery. Insulin
would be lethal.
8. The primary route of exposure that leads to chronic occupational lead
poisoning is:
A) Skin absorption.
B) Ingestion from contaminated hands or food.
C) Inhalation of dust or fumes.
D) Injection from sharp objects.
Answer: C
Rationale: While ingestion from poor hygiene is a significant secondary route,
inhalation of lead dust and fumes is the primary route of occupational exposure,
Examination DEFINED ANSWERS LATEST
ALREADY GRADED A+ (2025/2026)
1. A 28-year-old employee sustains a laceration on the forearm from a piece of
machinery. The wound bleeds profusely at first. What is the FIRST step in
managing this injury in the occupational health clinic?
A) Apply a tourniquet 2 inches above the wound.
B) Cleanse the wound thoroughly with povidone-iodine.
C) Apply direct pressure with a sterile dressing.
D) Immediately assess range of motion of the affected limb.
Answer: C
Rationale: The immediate priority in wound care with active bleeding is to control
hemorrhage using direct pressure. A tourniquet is reserved for life-threatening
hemorrhage when direct pressure fails. Cleansing and assessment occur after
bleeding is controlled.
2. An employee returns to work after a back injury with a 20-pound lifting
restriction. The supervisor asks the employee to move boxes weighing 35 pounds.
The OHN's MOST appropriate action is to:
A) Instruct the employee to politely refuse the task and file a grievance.
B) Educate the supervisor on the specifics of the medical restriction and the risk of
re-injury.
C) Advise the employee to perform the task using a buddy system.
,D) Revise the restriction to 35 pounds temporarily.
Answer: B
Rationale: The OHN's role is to advocate for worker safety by interpreting medical
restrictions and educating management on potential health and liability risks. A
temporary work modification violates the healthcare provider's order. Refusal can
lead to disciplinary issues; education is the first collaborative step.
3. During a pre-placement physical exam, an applicant reveals a history of well-
controlled asthma. The job requires occasional use of a full-face respirator. The
OHN should:
A) Disqualify the applicant immediately due to respiratory history.
B) Refer the applicant for a pulmonary function test and respirator clearance
evaluation.
C) Ask the applicant to sign a waiver for any respiratory complications.
D) Ignore the history since the asthma is well-controlled.
Answer: B
Rationale: OSHA's Respiratory Protection Standard mandates a medical
evaluation to determine an employee's ability to use a respirator before fit
testing. Asthma is a relative contraindication; a physician or licensed health care
professional must determine clearance. The OHN cannot arbitrarily disqualify or
ignore the condition.
4. An employee reports to the occupational health clinic 30 minutes after a
chemical splash to the eye. The first priority intervention is:
A) Instilling fluorescein stain to check for corneal abrasions.
B) Measuring the pH of the ocular surface.
C) Immediate, prolonged flushing of the eye with water or saline.
D) Obtaining the Safety Data Sheet for the chemical.
,Answer: C
Rationale: Copious, immediate irrigation is the cornerstone of treating ocular
chemical burns to remove the substance and normalize pH. A Morgan lens may
be used. Delaying irrigation to find an SDS or do an exam increases the severity of
the injury. Seconds count.
5. A hearing conservation program must be established when employee noise
exposures equal or exceed an 8-hour time-weighted average of:
A) 75 dBA
B) 85 dBA
C) 90 dBA
D) 100 dBA
Answer: B
Rationale: Per OSHA's Hearing Conservation Amendment, an 85 dBA TWA over 8
hours is the "action level." At this level, a program including monitoring,
audiometric testing, training, and hearing protector provision is required. 90 dBA
is the Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL) requiring feasible engineering controls.
6. An OHN calculates an incidence rate of 8.5 injuries per 100 full-time workers.
This rate is BEST used for:
A) Determining the exact monetary cost of the injuries.
B) Comparing the company's safety performance with the national industry
average.
C) Identifying which individual employee is most accident-prone.
D) Replacing the need for a root cause analysis of incidents.
Answer: B
, Rationale: Incidence rates (per 200,000 hours worked) provide a standardized
metric for trend analysis within a company and for external benchmarking against
Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS) industry data. They do not identify individual
causes or costs.
7. A 45-year-old male employee with no known history of diabetes faints at work.
A fingerstick glucose reads 40 mg/dL. He is awake but confused and diaphoretic.
The BEST immediate treatment is:
A) A diet soda and a cheese stick.
B) A glass of orange juice with sugar added, or an oral glucose gel.
C) An injection of long-acting insulin.
D) Encouraging him to lie down until symptoms pass naturally.
Answer: B
Rationale: The presentation indicates severe hypoglycemia. An awake and alert
individual (able to protect their airway) should receive fast-acting simple
carbohydrates (15-20 grams). Orange juice with sugar or glucose gel is ideal.
Complex carbs and protein (cheese) are for maintenance after recovery. Insulin
would be lethal.
8. The primary route of exposure that leads to chronic occupational lead
poisoning is:
A) Skin absorption.
B) Ingestion from contaminated hands or food.
C) Inhalation of dust or fumes.
D) Injection from sharp objects.
Answer: C
Rationale: While ingestion from poor hygiene is a significant secondary route,
inhalation of lead dust and fumes is the primary route of occupational exposure,
