NR 293 PHARMACOLOGY FOR NURSING FINAL EXAM
CHAMBERLAIN UNIVERSITY ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES
100% GUARANTEED PASS!!
<LATEST VERSION>
1.
A nurse is explaining why two medications with the same prescribed dose can
produce different blood concentrations in different patients. Which
pharmacokinetic process primarily determines the amount of an orally
administered drug that reaches systemic circulation after absorption?
A. Distribution
B. Bioavailability
C. Protein binding
D. Renal excretion
Answer: B
Rationale: Bioavailability is the fraction of an administered drug that reaches
systemic circulation in an unchanged form. Oral medications may have reduced
bioavailability because of incomplete absorption and hepatic first-pass metabolism.
,2.
A client receives an oral medication with a half-life of 8 hours. The initial serum
concentration is 80 mg/L. Assuming first-order elimination, approximately what
concentration remains 16 hours after administration?
A. 40 mg/L
B. 20 mg/L
C. 10 mg/L
D. 5 mg/L
Answer: C
Rationale: One half-life reduces the concentration from 80 to 40 mg/L. After two
half-lives, 16 hours, the concentration is reduced to 20 mg/L—not 10 mg/L.
Therefore, the correct calculation is B, 20 mg/L.
3.
A nurse reviews the medication profile of a client who has chronic kidney disease.
Which prescribed medication requires particular attention because it has a narrow
therapeutic index?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Digoxin
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Docusate
Answer: B
Rationale: Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic index, meaning the difference
between a therapeutic and toxic concentration is relatively small. Renal impairment
can decrease digoxin clearance and increase toxicity risk, requiring careful dosing
and monitoring.
,4.
A client taking digoxin reports nausea, poor appetite, and seeing yellow-green
halos around lights. The client's apical pulse is 52/min. Which action should the
nurse take first?
A. Administer the medication with food
B. Hold digoxin and notify the healthcare provider
C. Encourage the client to increase sodium intake
D. Administer the next dose at bedtime
Answer: B
Rationale: Bradycardia, gastrointestinal symptoms, and visual disturbances are
classic manifestations of digoxin toxicity. The nurse should withhold the
medication and promptly notify the healthcare provider. Serum digoxin and
electrolyte levels may also be evaluated.
5.
A client receiving an IV heparin infusion has an aPTT of 128 seconds. Which
interpretation is most appropriate?
A. The client may require additional heparin
B. The client is below the expected therapeutic response
C. The client has an increased risk for bleeding
D. The medication should be changed to warfarin immediately
Answer: C
Rationale: An excessively prolonged aPTT indicates increased anticoagulant
effect and raises the risk for bleeding. The infusion should be managed according
to the institution's heparin protocol, and the client should be assessed for bleeding.
, 6.
A client receiving heparin develops severe bleeding after a medication-related
complication. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering as the
reversal agent?
A. Vitamin K
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Naloxone
D. Acetylcysteine
Answer: B
Rationale: Protamine sulfate is used to reverse the anticoagulant effects of
unfractionated heparin. Vitamin K is primarily used to reverse warfarin-associated
anticoagulation.
7.
A client taking warfarin asks whether leafy green vegetables must be completely
avoided. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. "You should eliminate all foods containing vitamin K."
B. "You should consume large amounts of vitamin K every day."
C. "Maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-containing foods."
D. "Vitamin K has no effect on warfarin therapy."
Answer: C
Rationale: Clients taking warfarin do not necessarily need to avoid vitamin K-
containing foods. The important principle is maintaining a relatively consistent
intake so that anticoagulation remains predictable.
CHAMBERLAIN UNIVERSITY ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES
100% GUARANTEED PASS!!
<LATEST VERSION>
1.
A nurse is explaining why two medications with the same prescribed dose can
produce different blood concentrations in different patients. Which
pharmacokinetic process primarily determines the amount of an orally
administered drug that reaches systemic circulation after absorption?
A. Distribution
B. Bioavailability
C. Protein binding
D. Renal excretion
Answer: B
Rationale: Bioavailability is the fraction of an administered drug that reaches
systemic circulation in an unchanged form. Oral medications may have reduced
bioavailability because of incomplete absorption and hepatic first-pass metabolism.
,2.
A client receives an oral medication with a half-life of 8 hours. The initial serum
concentration is 80 mg/L. Assuming first-order elimination, approximately what
concentration remains 16 hours after administration?
A. 40 mg/L
B. 20 mg/L
C. 10 mg/L
D. 5 mg/L
Answer: C
Rationale: One half-life reduces the concentration from 80 to 40 mg/L. After two
half-lives, 16 hours, the concentration is reduced to 20 mg/L—not 10 mg/L.
Therefore, the correct calculation is B, 20 mg/L.
3.
A nurse reviews the medication profile of a client who has chronic kidney disease.
Which prescribed medication requires particular attention because it has a narrow
therapeutic index?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Digoxin
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Docusate
Answer: B
Rationale: Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic index, meaning the difference
between a therapeutic and toxic concentration is relatively small. Renal impairment
can decrease digoxin clearance and increase toxicity risk, requiring careful dosing
and monitoring.
,4.
A client taking digoxin reports nausea, poor appetite, and seeing yellow-green
halos around lights. The client's apical pulse is 52/min. Which action should the
nurse take first?
A. Administer the medication with food
B. Hold digoxin and notify the healthcare provider
C. Encourage the client to increase sodium intake
D. Administer the next dose at bedtime
Answer: B
Rationale: Bradycardia, gastrointestinal symptoms, and visual disturbances are
classic manifestations of digoxin toxicity. The nurse should withhold the
medication and promptly notify the healthcare provider. Serum digoxin and
electrolyte levels may also be evaluated.
5.
A client receiving an IV heparin infusion has an aPTT of 128 seconds. Which
interpretation is most appropriate?
A. The client may require additional heparin
B. The client is below the expected therapeutic response
C. The client has an increased risk for bleeding
D. The medication should be changed to warfarin immediately
Answer: C
Rationale: An excessively prolonged aPTT indicates increased anticoagulant
effect and raises the risk for bleeding. The infusion should be managed according
to the institution's heparin protocol, and the client should be assessed for bleeding.
, 6.
A client receiving heparin develops severe bleeding after a medication-related
complication. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering as the
reversal agent?
A. Vitamin K
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Naloxone
D. Acetylcysteine
Answer: B
Rationale: Protamine sulfate is used to reverse the anticoagulant effects of
unfractionated heparin. Vitamin K is primarily used to reverse warfarin-associated
anticoagulation.
7.
A client taking warfarin asks whether leafy green vegetables must be completely
avoided. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. "You should eliminate all foods containing vitamin K."
B. "You should consume large amounts of vitamin K every day."
C. "Maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-containing foods."
D. "Vitamin K has no effect on warfarin therapy."
Answer: C
Rationale: Clients taking warfarin do not necessarily need to avoid vitamin K-
containing foods. The important principle is maintaining a relatively consistent
intake so that anticoagulation remains predictable.
