1
HESI CAT Exam 2026 – Actual Exam Questions
with Correct Detailed Answers and Rationales
(Graded A+, Newest Version)
75 HESI CAT Exam Questions
Fundamentals of Nursing
1. A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter. Which action demonstrates proper
sterile technique?
A. Opens the outer packaging and places it on the overbed table.
B. Secures the drainage tubing to the client's thigh with a securement device.
C. Empties the drainage bag every 24 hours.
D. Routinely irrigates the catheter with sterile water.
Answer: B
Rationale: Securing the catheter prevents traction and accidental removal. The drainage bag should
be kept below the bladder level and emptied every 8 hours. Routine irrigation is not recommended
as it increases infection risk.
2. A nurse is using the SBAR tool to communicate with a provider. What does "B" stand for?
A. Brief
B. Background
C. Baseline
D. Blood pressure
Answer: B
Rationale: SBAR is a standardized communication framework: Situation, Background, Assessment,
and Recommendation. This tool improves handoff communication and reduces errors.
3. A nurse is performing a sterile dressing change. Which action breaks sterile technique?
A. Using sterile gloves.
B. Placing the sterile field at waist level.
C. Touching the inside of the sterile drape with bare hands.
D. Opening sterile packages away from the field.
Answer: C
Rationale: The inside of the sterile drape is considered sterile and must not be touched with bare
hands. The 1-inch border of a sterile field is also considered non-sterile.
4. A client refuses a blood transfusion for religious reasons. What is the nurse's best response?
A. "You will die without this transfusion."
B. "I respect your decision. Let's discuss other treatment options with your provider."
C. "You are making a mistake."
D. "I will call your family to convince you."
Answer: B
,2
Rationale: The nurse must respect the patient's autonomy and religious beliefs while advocating for
alternative treatments. Judgmental statements are inappropriate.
5. A client with a fecal impaction is being digitally disimpacted. The nurse should stop the
procedure if the client experiences:
A. Bradycardia
B. Abdominal cramping
C. Passage of small amounts of stool
D. Nausea
Answer: A
Rationale: Digital stimulation can trigger the vagus nerve, causing bradycardia and hypotension
(vasovagal response). The nurse should stop immediately if the heart rate drops.
6. A client is on a clear liquid diet before a colonoscopy. Which item is allowed?
A. Milk
B. Apple juice
C. Orange juice with pulp
D. Chicken broth with noodles
Answer: B
Rationale: Clear liquids are transparent and free of pulp or solids. Apple juice is a clear liquid. Milk,
orange juice with pulp, and broth with noodles are not.
7. Which action by the nurse is correct when verifying the placement of a nasogastric (NG) tube?
A. Auscultate for a "whoosh" sound over the stomach.
B. Measure the pH of aspirated fluid.
C. Place the end of the tube in water and check for bubbling.
D. Inject 50 mL of air and listen with a stethoscope.
Answer: B
Rationale: The most reliable method for verifying NG tube placement is a pH test of the aspirated
fluid (normal gastric pH is ≤5.5). X-ray confirmation is the gold standard.
8. A nurse is providing post-mortem care. Which action is most appropriate?
A. Remove all tubes and lines before the family views the body.
B. Place identification tags on the body and allow family time if desired.
C. Wash the body and remove all personal effects.
D. Quickly prepare the body for the morgue to prevent family distress.
Answer: B
Rationale: The family should be given the option to view the body. Identification tags should be
placed on the body. Tubes are typically left in place for the family to see if they wish.
9. A client with a stage 2 pressure injury on the sacrum should have which type of dressing
applied?
A. Dry gauze
B. Hydrocolloid or foam dressing
C. Wet-to-dry dressing
D. Transparent film
Answer: B
Rationale: Stage 2 pressure injuries are partial-thickness wounds that should be kept moist to
promote healing. Hydrocolloid or foam dressings maintain a moist environment.
, 3
10. A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
indicates:
A. Normal functioning
B. An air leak
C. Tension pneumothorax
D. The tube is clogged
Answer: B
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak in the system.
Intermittent bubbling is normal with respiration.
11. A client's IV site is red, warm, and tender. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Slow the IV infusion rate.
B. Apply a warm compress.
C. Discontinue the IV and restart at a different site.
D. Document the findings and continue to monitor.
Answer: C
Rationale: Redness, warmth, and tenderness indicate phlebitis. The priority is to discontinue the IV
and restart at a different site to prevent further irritation.
12. A client receiving a blood transfusion develops chills, fever, and back pain. What is the nurse's
priority action?
A. Slow the transfusion rate.
B. Stop the transfusion immediately.
C. Administer an antihistamine.
D. Notify the blood bank.
Answer: B
Rationale: Chills, fever, and back pain are signs of a hemolytic transfusion reaction. The priority is to
stop the transfusion immediately and maintain IV access with normal saline.
13. A nurse is teaching a client with a new colostomy about odor control. Which food is most likely
to reduce odor?
A. Eggs
B. Yogurt
C. Onions
D. Fish
Answer: B
Rationale: Yogurt contains probiotics that may help reduce odor by promoting healthy gut flora.
Eggs, onions, and fish are known to increase odor.
Medical-Surgical Nursing
14. A patient is admitted with an epidural hematoma from a skateboarding accident. To
differentiate the vascular source of the bleeding, which finding should the caregiver monitor?
A. Gradual onset of headache.
B. Rapid onset of decreased level of consciousness.
C. Nuchal rigidity.
D. Periorbital ecchymosis.
Answer: B
Rationale: Epidural hematomas are typically arterial (from the middle meningeal artery) and present
with a rapid decrease in level of consciousness following a brief lucid interval.
HESI CAT Exam 2026 – Actual Exam Questions
with Correct Detailed Answers and Rationales
(Graded A+, Newest Version)
75 HESI CAT Exam Questions
Fundamentals of Nursing
1. A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter. Which action demonstrates proper
sterile technique?
A. Opens the outer packaging and places it on the overbed table.
B. Secures the drainage tubing to the client's thigh with a securement device.
C. Empties the drainage bag every 24 hours.
D. Routinely irrigates the catheter with sterile water.
Answer: B
Rationale: Securing the catheter prevents traction and accidental removal. The drainage bag should
be kept below the bladder level and emptied every 8 hours. Routine irrigation is not recommended
as it increases infection risk.
2. A nurse is using the SBAR tool to communicate with a provider. What does "B" stand for?
A. Brief
B. Background
C. Baseline
D. Blood pressure
Answer: B
Rationale: SBAR is a standardized communication framework: Situation, Background, Assessment,
and Recommendation. This tool improves handoff communication and reduces errors.
3. A nurse is performing a sterile dressing change. Which action breaks sterile technique?
A. Using sterile gloves.
B. Placing the sterile field at waist level.
C. Touching the inside of the sterile drape with bare hands.
D. Opening sterile packages away from the field.
Answer: C
Rationale: The inside of the sterile drape is considered sterile and must not be touched with bare
hands. The 1-inch border of a sterile field is also considered non-sterile.
4. A client refuses a blood transfusion for religious reasons. What is the nurse's best response?
A. "You will die without this transfusion."
B. "I respect your decision. Let's discuss other treatment options with your provider."
C. "You are making a mistake."
D. "I will call your family to convince you."
Answer: B
,2
Rationale: The nurse must respect the patient's autonomy and religious beliefs while advocating for
alternative treatments. Judgmental statements are inappropriate.
5. A client with a fecal impaction is being digitally disimpacted. The nurse should stop the
procedure if the client experiences:
A. Bradycardia
B. Abdominal cramping
C. Passage of small amounts of stool
D. Nausea
Answer: A
Rationale: Digital stimulation can trigger the vagus nerve, causing bradycardia and hypotension
(vasovagal response). The nurse should stop immediately if the heart rate drops.
6. A client is on a clear liquid diet before a colonoscopy. Which item is allowed?
A. Milk
B. Apple juice
C. Orange juice with pulp
D. Chicken broth with noodles
Answer: B
Rationale: Clear liquids are transparent and free of pulp or solids. Apple juice is a clear liquid. Milk,
orange juice with pulp, and broth with noodles are not.
7. Which action by the nurse is correct when verifying the placement of a nasogastric (NG) tube?
A. Auscultate for a "whoosh" sound over the stomach.
B. Measure the pH of aspirated fluid.
C. Place the end of the tube in water and check for bubbling.
D. Inject 50 mL of air and listen with a stethoscope.
Answer: B
Rationale: The most reliable method for verifying NG tube placement is a pH test of the aspirated
fluid (normal gastric pH is ≤5.5). X-ray confirmation is the gold standard.
8. A nurse is providing post-mortem care. Which action is most appropriate?
A. Remove all tubes and lines before the family views the body.
B. Place identification tags on the body and allow family time if desired.
C. Wash the body and remove all personal effects.
D. Quickly prepare the body for the morgue to prevent family distress.
Answer: B
Rationale: The family should be given the option to view the body. Identification tags should be
placed on the body. Tubes are typically left in place for the family to see if they wish.
9. A client with a stage 2 pressure injury on the sacrum should have which type of dressing
applied?
A. Dry gauze
B. Hydrocolloid or foam dressing
C. Wet-to-dry dressing
D. Transparent film
Answer: B
Rationale: Stage 2 pressure injuries are partial-thickness wounds that should be kept moist to
promote healing. Hydrocolloid or foam dressings maintain a moist environment.
, 3
10. A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
indicates:
A. Normal functioning
B. An air leak
C. Tension pneumothorax
D. The tube is clogged
Answer: B
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak in the system.
Intermittent bubbling is normal with respiration.
11. A client's IV site is red, warm, and tender. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Slow the IV infusion rate.
B. Apply a warm compress.
C. Discontinue the IV and restart at a different site.
D. Document the findings and continue to monitor.
Answer: C
Rationale: Redness, warmth, and tenderness indicate phlebitis. The priority is to discontinue the IV
and restart at a different site to prevent further irritation.
12. A client receiving a blood transfusion develops chills, fever, and back pain. What is the nurse's
priority action?
A. Slow the transfusion rate.
B. Stop the transfusion immediately.
C. Administer an antihistamine.
D. Notify the blood bank.
Answer: B
Rationale: Chills, fever, and back pain are signs of a hemolytic transfusion reaction. The priority is to
stop the transfusion immediately and maintain IV access with normal saline.
13. A nurse is teaching a client with a new colostomy about odor control. Which food is most likely
to reduce odor?
A. Eggs
B. Yogurt
C. Onions
D. Fish
Answer: B
Rationale: Yogurt contains probiotics that may help reduce odor by promoting healthy gut flora.
Eggs, onions, and fish are known to increase odor.
Medical-Surgical Nursing
14. A patient is admitted with an epidural hematoma from a skateboarding accident. To
differentiate the vascular source of the bleeding, which finding should the caregiver monitor?
A. Gradual onset of headache.
B. Rapid onset of decreased level of consciousness.
C. Nuchal rigidity.
D. Periorbital ecchymosis.
Answer: B
Rationale: Epidural hematomas are typically arterial (from the middle meningeal artery) and present
with a rapid decrease in level of consciousness following a brief lucid interval.
