NSG 3500 NURSING PRACTICE
MATERNAL HEALTH EXAM 3
ACTUAL 2026/2027 - 100%
LATEST MOCK PRACTICE SET
180 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NSG 3500 NURSING PRACTICE MATERNAL HEALTH EXAM 3 ACTUAL 2026/2027 - 100% VERIFIED |
DETAILED RATIONALES - PASS GUARANTEED - A+ GRADED. It contains 180 carefully selected questions that
reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is accompanied by a correct answer
and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology, pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 180 Questions
Foundations - Application - NSG 3500 Nursing Maternal Health 3 Actual 2026/2027 100 Detailed
Rationales PASS Guaranteed A NSG 3500 Nursing Maternal Health 3 Actual 2026/2027 100 Detailed
Rationales PASS Guaranteed A University
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Section A - Weeks Section B - Gestation
Questions 1 to 45 Questions 46 to 90
Section C - Finding Section D - Magnesium
Questions 91 to 135 Questions 136 to 180
,Section A - Weeks
Q1.
A client at 28 weeks gestation with chronic hypertension presents with a blood pressure
of 158/102 mmHg and new-onset proteinuria. Which finding most strongly indicates the
progression to severe preeclampsia?
A. Platelet count of 90,000/L B. Urine protein-to-creatinine ratio of 0.3
C. Serum creatinine of 0.9 mg/dL D. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) of 45
U/L
Correct: A - Platelet count of 90,000/L
Rationale:Severe preeclampsia is diagnosed with thrombocytopenia (platelets <100,000/¼L).
A protein-to-creatinine ratio of 0.3 indicates proteinuria but not severity; an AST of 45 U/L is
mildly elevated and not diagnostic of severe disease. The other values are within normal
limits or borderline.
Q2.
A client with preeclampsia receiving magnesium sulfate has a respiratory rate of 10
breaths/min, absent deep tendon reflexes, and urine output of 20 mL/hr. Which priority
action should the nurse take?
A. Administer calcium gluconate 1 g IV over B. Prepare for immediate cesarean birth
3 minutes
C. Increase the maintenance infusion rate D. Position the client in left lateral tilt and
reassess in 30 minutes
Correct: A - Administer calcium gluconate 1 g IV over 3 minutes
Rationale:The signs indicate magnesium toxicity. Calcium gluconate is the antidote.
Immediate birth may be indicated but not before stabilizing the client. Increasing the infusion
would worsen toxicity; repositioning alone is insufficient.
Q3.
A nurse is reviewing fetal heart rate (FHR) tracings. Which pattern requires immediate
intervention?
A. Early decelerations with fetal heart rate B. Variable decelerations that resolve with
variability of 10 beats/min maternal repositioning
C. Late decelerations with absent variability D. Accelerations lasting 20 seconds with a
and baseline of 160 beats/min rise of 15 beats/min
Page 3
, Section A - Weeks
Correct: C - Late decelerations with absent variability and baseline of 160 beats/min
Rationale:Late decelerations with absent variability and tachycardia indicate fetal
compromise, often from uteroplacental insufficiency, and require urgent intervention. Early
decelerations are benign; variable decelerations resolving with repositioning are managed
conservatively; accelerations are reassuring.
Q4.
A client at 39 weeks gestation presents with a temperature of 38.9°C (102°F), uterine
tenderness, and fetal tachycardia. Which intervention is the nurse's priority?
A. Administer acetaminophen for fever B. Initiate broad-spectrum intravenous
antibiotics
C. Prepare for immediate cesarean birth D. Increase intravenous fluid rate and
monitor vital signs
Correct: B - Initiate broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics
Rationale:The signs are consistent with chorioamnionitis, which requires prompt antibiotic
therapy to prevent maternal and neonatal sepsis. Acetaminophen treats fever but not the
infection; birth may be indicated but antibiotics are the priority; fluids are supportive but not
the primary intervention.
Q5.
A client with a history of cesarean birth at term presents in active labor. The nurse notes a
prolonged deceleration to 80 beats/min lasting 4 minutes. Which action is most
important?
A. Reposition the client to left lateral B. Discontinue oxytocin if infusing
C. Prepare for emergency cesarean birth D. Perform a vaginal examination to assess
for prolapsed cord
Correct: C - Prepare for emergency cesarean birth
Rationale:A prolonged deceleration in a client with a prior cesarean suggests possible uterine
rupture, which is an obstetric emergency requiring immediate cesarean birth. Repositioning
and discontinuing oxytocin are supportive, but the priority is delivery; a vaginal exam may be
done but delays definitive treatment.
Q6.
A postpartum client has a fundus that is boggy and deviated to the right, with moderate
lochia rubra. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Massage the fundus firmly B. Assist the client to void
Page 4
MATERNAL HEALTH EXAM 3
ACTUAL 2026/2027 - 100%
LATEST MOCK PRACTICE SET
180 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NSG 3500 NURSING PRACTICE MATERNAL HEALTH EXAM 3 ACTUAL 2026/2027 - 100% VERIFIED |
DETAILED RATIONALES - PASS GUARANTEED - A+ GRADED. It contains 180 carefully selected questions that
reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is accompanied by a correct answer
and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology, pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 180 Questions
Foundations - Application - NSG 3500 Nursing Maternal Health 3 Actual 2026/2027 100 Detailed
Rationales PASS Guaranteed A NSG 3500 Nursing Maternal Health 3 Actual 2026/2027 100 Detailed
Rationales PASS Guaranteed A University
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Section A - Weeks Section B - Gestation
Questions 1 to 45 Questions 46 to 90
Section C - Finding Section D - Magnesium
Questions 91 to 135 Questions 136 to 180
,Section A - Weeks
Q1.
A client at 28 weeks gestation with chronic hypertension presents with a blood pressure
of 158/102 mmHg and new-onset proteinuria. Which finding most strongly indicates the
progression to severe preeclampsia?
A. Platelet count of 90,000/L B. Urine protein-to-creatinine ratio of 0.3
C. Serum creatinine of 0.9 mg/dL D. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) of 45
U/L
Correct: A - Platelet count of 90,000/L
Rationale:Severe preeclampsia is diagnosed with thrombocytopenia (platelets <100,000/¼L).
A protein-to-creatinine ratio of 0.3 indicates proteinuria but not severity; an AST of 45 U/L is
mildly elevated and not diagnostic of severe disease. The other values are within normal
limits or borderline.
Q2.
A client with preeclampsia receiving magnesium sulfate has a respiratory rate of 10
breaths/min, absent deep tendon reflexes, and urine output of 20 mL/hr. Which priority
action should the nurse take?
A. Administer calcium gluconate 1 g IV over B. Prepare for immediate cesarean birth
3 minutes
C. Increase the maintenance infusion rate D. Position the client in left lateral tilt and
reassess in 30 minutes
Correct: A - Administer calcium gluconate 1 g IV over 3 minutes
Rationale:The signs indicate magnesium toxicity. Calcium gluconate is the antidote.
Immediate birth may be indicated but not before stabilizing the client. Increasing the infusion
would worsen toxicity; repositioning alone is insufficient.
Q3.
A nurse is reviewing fetal heart rate (FHR) tracings. Which pattern requires immediate
intervention?
A. Early decelerations with fetal heart rate B. Variable decelerations that resolve with
variability of 10 beats/min maternal repositioning
C. Late decelerations with absent variability D. Accelerations lasting 20 seconds with a
and baseline of 160 beats/min rise of 15 beats/min
Page 3
, Section A - Weeks
Correct: C - Late decelerations with absent variability and baseline of 160 beats/min
Rationale:Late decelerations with absent variability and tachycardia indicate fetal
compromise, often from uteroplacental insufficiency, and require urgent intervention. Early
decelerations are benign; variable decelerations resolving with repositioning are managed
conservatively; accelerations are reassuring.
Q4.
A client at 39 weeks gestation presents with a temperature of 38.9°C (102°F), uterine
tenderness, and fetal tachycardia. Which intervention is the nurse's priority?
A. Administer acetaminophen for fever B. Initiate broad-spectrum intravenous
antibiotics
C. Prepare for immediate cesarean birth D. Increase intravenous fluid rate and
monitor vital signs
Correct: B - Initiate broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics
Rationale:The signs are consistent with chorioamnionitis, which requires prompt antibiotic
therapy to prevent maternal and neonatal sepsis. Acetaminophen treats fever but not the
infection; birth may be indicated but antibiotics are the priority; fluids are supportive but not
the primary intervention.
Q5.
A client with a history of cesarean birth at term presents in active labor. The nurse notes a
prolonged deceleration to 80 beats/min lasting 4 minutes. Which action is most
important?
A. Reposition the client to left lateral B. Discontinue oxytocin if infusing
C. Prepare for emergency cesarean birth D. Perform a vaginal examination to assess
for prolapsed cord
Correct: C - Prepare for emergency cesarean birth
Rationale:A prolonged deceleration in a client with a prior cesarean suggests possible uterine
rupture, which is an obstetric emergency requiring immediate cesarean birth. Repositioning
and discontinuing oxytocin are supportive, but the priority is delivery; a vaginal exam may be
done but delays definitive treatment.
Q6.
A postpartum client has a fundus that is boggy and deviated to the right, with moderate
lochia rubra. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Massage the fundus firmly B. Assist the client to void
Page 4
