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HESI PN EXIT EXAM (V3) - ACTUAL EXAM 2026/2027 |
NGN-STYLE | EXPERT VERIFIED | 75 VERIFIED Q&A |
DETAILED RATIONALES | PASS GUARANTEED - A+
GRADED
QUESTION 1
A 35-week gestation infant is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) with respiratory distress
syndrome (RDS). Which assessment finding is most consistent with RDS?
A. Grunting respirations and nasal flaring
B. Pink skin color
C. Quiet, regular respirations
D. Oxygen saturation of 96%
Rationale: Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) is characterized by grunting respirations, nasal flaring,
retractions, and cyanosis. These signs indicate respiratory distress and the need for respiratory support. Pink
skin, quiet respirations, and normal oxygen saturation are inconsistent with RDS.
QUESTION 2
The PN is caring for a newborn with jaundice who is receiving phototherapy. Which intervention is most
important during phototherapy?
A. Monitor the infant's temperature every 4 hours
B. Ensure the infant's eyes are covered
C. Assess the infant's skin for rash
D. Position the infant prone
Rationale: During phototherapy, the infant's eyes must be covered to prevent retinal damage from the bright
lights. Temperature monitoring, skin assessment, and positioning are also important but eye protection is the
priority.
QUESTION 3
A mother brings her 2-month-old infant to the clinic for a well-baby visit. Which developmental milestone
should the PN expect the infant to have achieved?
A. Sitting without support
B. Smiling in response to stimuli
C. Rolling over
D. Grasping objects with a pincer grasp
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Rationale: At 2 months of age, infants typically smile in response to stimuli (social smile). Sitting without
support occurs around 6-8 months, rolling over around 4-6 months, and pincer grasp around 9-10 months.
QUESTION 4
The PN is caring for a postpartum client who is breastfeeding. Which finding indicates that breastfeeding is
effective?
A. The infant is voiding 6-8 wet diapers per day
B. The infant cries frequently after feedings
C. The mother reports breast engorgement
D. The infant sleeps through the night
Rationale: Effective breastfeeding is indicated by the infant voiding 6-8 wet diapers per day, which suggests
adequate hydration and milk intake. Frequent crying, breast engorgement, and sleeping through the night are
not reliable indicators of effective breastfeeding.
QUESTION 5
A client at 38 weeks gestation is admitted with preeclampsia. Which finding should the PN report
immediately?
A. Blood pressure of 160/110 mmHg
B. Mild ankle edema
C. Urine protein of 1+
D. Headache that resolves with rest
Rationale: A blood pressure of 160/110 mmHg indicates severe preeclampsia and requires immediate
intervention. Mild ankle edema, urine protein of 1+, and headache that resolves with rest are expected
findings in preeclampsia but do not require immediate intervention.
QUESTION 6
The PN is providing education to a mother about preventing sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Which
instruction should the PN reinforce?
A. Place the infant on the stomach to sleep
B. Place the infant on the back to sleep
C. Place the infant on the side to sleep
D. Place the infant in the bed with the parents
Rationale: The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends placing infants on their back to sleep to reduce
the risk of SIDS. Prone (stomach) and side sleeping positions increase the risk. Co-sleeping is also not
recommended.
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QUESTION 7
A newborn is diagnosed with phenylketonuria (PKU). Which dietary instruction should the PN reinforce?
A. The infant should be placed on a low-phenylalanine formula
B. The infant should receive breast milk only
C. The infant should receive a soy-based formula
D. The infant should receive a standard cow's milk formula
Rationale: PKU is a metabolic disorder that requires a low-phenylalanine diet. Infants with PKU should be
placed on a special low-phenylalanine formula. Breast milk and standard formulas contain phenylalanine and
are not appropriate.
QUESTION 8
The PN is caring for a client who is 24 hours postpartum. Which finding should the PN report to the
healthcare provider?
A. Lochia rubra with small clots
B. Fundus palpated 2 cm above the umbilicus
C. Uterine cramping during breastfeeding
D. Temperature of 99.0°F (37.2°C)
Rationale: The fundus should be at or below the level of the umbilicus by 24 hours postpartum. A fundus
palpated 2 cm above the umbilicus may indicate uterine atony or retained placental fragments. Lochia rubra
with small clots, uterine cramping during breastfeeding, and a low-grade fever are expected findings.
QUESTION 9
A client at 32 weeks gestation is admitted with preterm labor. Which medication should the PN expect to be
prescribed to promote fetal lung maturity?
A. Magnesium sulfate
B. Betamethasone
C. Terbutaline
D. Nifedipine
Rationale: Betamethasone is a corticosteroid given to promote fetal lung maturity in preterm labor.
Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in preeclampsia. Terbutaline and nifedipine are tocolytics used
to stop preterm labor.
QUESTION 10
HESI PN EXIT EXAM (V3) - ACTUAL EXAM 2026/2027 |
NGN-STYLE | EXPERT VERIFIED | 75 VERIFIED Q&A |
DETAILED RATIONALES | PASS GUARANTEED - A+
GRADED
QUESTION 1
A 35-week gestation infant is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) with respiratory distress
syndrome (RDS). Which assessment finding is most consistent with RDS?
A. Grunting respirations and nasal flaring
B. Pink skin color
C. Quiet, regular respirations
D. Oxygen saturation of 96%
Rationale: Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) is characterized by grunting respirations, nasal flaring,
retractions, and cyanosis. These signs indicate respiratory distress and the need for respiratory support. Pink
skin, quiet respirations, and normal oxygen saturation are inconsistent with RDS.
QUESTION 2
The PN is caring for a newborn with jaundice who is receiving phototherapy. Which intervention is most
important during phototherapy?
A. Monitor the infant's temperature every 4 hours
B. Ensure the infant's eyes are covered
C. Assess the infant's skin for rash
D. Position the infant prone
Rationale: During phototherapy, the infant's eyes must be covered to prevent retinal damage from the bright
lights. Temperature monitoring, skin assessment, and positioning are also important but eye protection is the
priority.
QUESTION 3
A mother brings her 2-month-old infant to the clinic for a well-baby visit. Which developmental milestone
should the PN expect the infant to have achieved?
A. Sitting without support
B. Smiling in response to stimuli
C. Rolling over
D. Grasping objects with a pincer grasp
,2
Rationale: At 2 months of age, infants typically smile in response to stimuli (social smile). Sitting without
support occurs around 6-8 months, rolling over around 4-6 months, and pincer grasp around 9-10 months.
QUESTION 4
The PN is caring for a postpartum client who is breastfeeding. Which finding indicates that breastfeeding is
effective?
A. The infant is voiding 6-8 wet diapers per day
B. The infant cries frequently after feedings
C. The mother reports breast engorgement
D. The infant sleeps through the night
Rationale: Effective breastfeeding is indicated by the infant voiding 6-8 wet diapers per day, which suggests
adequate hydration and milk intake. Frequent crying, breast engorgement, and sleeping through the night are
not reliable indicators of effective breastfeeding.
QUESTION 5
A client at 38 weeks gestation is admitted with preeclampsia. Which finding should the PN report
immediately?
A. Blood pressure of 160/110 mmHg
B. Mild ankle edema
C. Urine protein of 1+
D. Headache that resolves with rest
Rationale: A blood pressure of 160/110 mmHg indicates severe preeclampsia and requires immediate
intervention. Mild ankle edema, urine protein of 1+, and headache that resolves with rest are expected
findings in preeclampsia but do not require immediate intervention.
QUESTION 6
The PN is providing education to a mother about preventing sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Which
instruction should the PN reinforce?
A. Place the infant on the stomach to sleep
B. Place the infant on the back to sleep
C. Place the infant on the side to sleep
D. Place the infant in the bed with the parents
Rationale: The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends placing infants on their back to sleep to reduce
the risk of SIDS. Prone (stomach) and side sleeping positions increase the risk. Co-sleeping is also not
recommended.
, 3
QUESTION 7
A newborn is diagnosed with phenylketonuria (PKU). Which dietary instruction should the PN reinforce?
A. The infant should be placed on a low-phenylalanine formula
B. The infant should receive breast milk only
C. The infant should receive a soy-based formula
D. The infant should receive a standard cow's milk formula
Rationale: PKU is a metabolic disorder that requires a low-phenylalanine diet. Infants with PKU should be
placed on a special low-phenylalanine formula. Breast milk and standard formulas contain phenylalanine and
are not appropriate.
QUESTION 8
The PN is caring for a client who is 24 hours postpartum. Which finding should the PN report to the
healthcare provider?
A. Lochia rubra with small clots
B. Fundus palpated 2 cm above the umbilicus
C. Uterine cramping during breastfeeding
D. Temperature of 99.0°F (37.2°C)
Rationale: The fundus should be at or below the level of the umbilicus by 24 hours postpartum. A fundus
palpated 2 cm above the umbilicus may indicate uterine atony or retained placental fragments. Lochia rubra
with small clots, uterine cramping during breastfeeding, and a low-grade fever are expected findings.
QUESTION 9
A client at 32 weeks gestation is admitted with preterm labor. Which medication should the PN expect to be
prescribed to promote fetal lung maturity?
A. Magnesium sulfate
B. Betamethasone
C. Terbutaline
D. Nifedipine
Rationale: Betamethasone is a corticosteroid given to promote fetal lung maturity in preterm labor.
Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in preeclampsia. Terbutaline and nifedipine are tocolytics used
to stop preterm labor.
QUESTION 10
