CAPSTONE PHARMACOLOGY PR
ASSESSMENT 2024 150 DETAILED
CORRECT ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES CORRECT VERIFIED
ANSWERS FOR GRADE A+ | INSTANT
DOWNLOAD & 100% PASS
GUARANTEE
Capstone Pharmacology Pre-Assessment Newest 2024
1. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client who
has heart failure. The client reports nausea, vomiting, and
visual disturbances with a yellow tint. The nurse reviews
the client's morning laboratory results and notes a serum
potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take first? A. Administer the
prescribed dose of digoxin and monitor the client's heart
rate. B. Hold the digoxin dose and notify the healthcare
provider immediately. C. Encourage the client to consume
foods high in potassium, such as bananas and oranges. D.
Administer a prescribed antiemetic to relieve the client's
nausea and vomiting.Correct Answer: B. Hold the
digoxin dose and notify the healthcare provider
immediately. Rationale: The client is exhibiting
classic signs of digoxin toxicity (nausea, vomiting,
yellow-tinted vision). Furthermore, the client's potassium
level is 3.2 mEq/L (hypokalemia), which significantly
increases the risk of digoxin toxicity and fatal
dysrhythmias. The nurse must hold the medication and
notify the provider. Administering the drug (A) is unsafe.
, While potassium replacement (C) is needed, holding the
toxic medication and notifying the provider is the
priority. Antiemetics (D) treat the symptom but ignore
the life-threatening toxicity.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a deep vein
thrombosis (DVT) and is receiving a continuous
intravenous heparin infusion. The client’s most recent
activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 120
seconds (control is 30 seconds). Which of the following
actions should the nurse take? A. Continue the heparin
infusion at the current rate and recheck the aPTT in 6
hours. B. Increase the heparin infusion rate to achieve a
therapeutic level. C. Stop the heparin infusion and prepare
to administer protamine sulfate. D. Administer a
subcutaneous injection of vitamin K
immediately.Correct Answer: C. Stop the heparin
infusion and prepare to administer protamine
sulfate. Rationale: The therapeutic aPTT for a client
on heparin is typically 1.5 to 2 times the control value (45
to 60 seconds). An aPTT of 120 seconds is critically high
and places the client at severe risk for hemorrhage. The
nurse must stop the infusion and anticipate
administering protamine sulfate, the specific antidote for
heparin. Continuing (A) or increasing (B) the infusion is
dangerous. Vitamin K (D) is the antidote for warfarin,
not heparin.
3. A nurse is teaching a client who has type 1 diabetes
mellitus how to mix regular insulin and NPH insulin in the
same syringe. Which of the following instructions should
the nurse include? A. Draw up the NPH insulin first, then
draw up the regular insulin. B. Inject air into the NPH vial
first, then inject air into the regular insulin vial. C. Draw
up the regular insulin first, then draw up the NPH insulin.
D. Roll both vials vigorously between the hands before
, drawing up the medication.Correct Answer: C.
Draw up the regular insulin first, then draw up
the NPH insulin. Rationale: When mixing insulins,
the nurse should follow the "clear before cloudy" rule.
Regular insulin is clear, and NPH insulin is cloudy. The
nurse should inject air into the NPH (cloudy) vial first,
then inject air into the regular (clear) vial, and draw up
the regular (clear) insulin first. This prevents
contaminating the rapid/short-acting clear insulin with
the intermediate-acting cloudy insulin. Rolling (D) is only
for cloudy insulins like NPH, not regular insulin.
4. A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client
who was brought in with a suspected opioid overdose. The
client is unresponsive with a respiratory rate of 6/min and
pinpoint pupils. After administering naloxone, which of
the following findings should the nurse prioritize
monitoring? A. The client's blood pressure and heart rate
for hypertension. B. The client's respiratory status for
return of severe respiratory depression. C. The client's
temperature for sudden hyperthermia. D. The client's
blood glucose levels for severe hypoglycemia.Correct
Answer: B. The client's respiratory status for
return of severe respiratory depression.
Rationale: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to
reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression. However,
the half-life of naloxone is significantly shorter than that
of most opioids. Therefore, once the naloxone wears off,
the client can slip back into severe respiratory depression
and coma. The nurse must continuously monitor the
client's respiratory status and be prepared to administer
additional doses of naloxone. Hypertension (A) and
hyperthermia (C) are not primary concerns, and
naloxone does not typically cause hypoglycemia (D).
, 5. A nurse is reviewing the medication record for a client who
has hypertension and is taking lisinopril. The client
reports a new, persistent, dry, hacking cough that is
interfering with their sleep. Which of the following actions
should the nurse take? A. Advise the client to take the
medication with a full glass of orange juice to soothe the
throat. B. Instruct the client to use an over-the-counter
cough suppressant containing dextromethorphan. C.
Notify the healthcare provider, as this is a common
adverse effect that may require switching to an ARB. D.
Reassure the client that the cough is a temporary side
effect that will resolve in a few days.Correct Answer:
C. Notify the healthcare provider, as this is a
common adverse effect that may require
switching to an ARB. Rationale: A persistent, dry,
hacking cough is a well-known adverse effect of ACE
inhibitors (like lisinopril) caused by the accumulation of
bradykinin in the lungs. It does not resolve with time (D)
or cough suppressants (B), and orange juice (A) will not
help. The provider should be notified so the client can be
switched to an Angiotensin II Receptor Blocker (ARB),
which does not cause bradykinin accumulation and is an
appropriate alternative.
6. A nurse is caring for a client who has hyperlipidemia and
has been taking simvastatin for the past three months. The
client calls the clinic reporting severe, unexplained muscle
aching and weakness in their legs and back, along with
dark-colored urine. Which of the following instructions
should the nurse provide? A. "Take an over-the-counter
NSAID for the muscle pain and increase your fluid intake."
B. "Stop taking the medication immediately and come to
the clinic for laboratory testing." C. "This is an expected
side effect; try applying a heating pad to the affected
muscles." D. "Take the medication at bedtime to reduce
ASSESSMENT 2024 150 DETAILED
CORRECT ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES CORRECT VERIFIED
ANSWERS FOR GRADE A+ | INSTANT
DOWNLOAD & 100% PASS
GUARANTEE
Capstone Pharmacology Pre-Assessment Newest 2024
1. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client who
has heart failure. The client reports nausea, vomiting, and
visual disturbances with a yellow tint. The nurse reviews
the client's morning laboratory results and notes a serum
potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take first? A. Administer the
prescribed dose of digoxin and monitor the client's heart
rate. B. Hold the digoxin dose and notify the healthcare
provider immediately. C. Encourage the client to consume
foods high in potassium, such as bananas and oranges. D.
Administer a prescribed antiemetic to relieve the client's
nausea and vomiting.Correct Answer: B. Hold the
digoxin dose and notify the healthcare provider
immediately. Rationale: The client is exhibiting
classic signs of digoxin toxicity (nausea, vomiting,
yellow-tinted vision). Furthermore, the client's potassium
level is 3.2 mEq/L (hypokalemia), which significantly
increases the risk of digoxin toxicity and fatal
dysrhythmias. The nurse must hold the medication and
notify the provider. Administering the drug (A) is unsafe.
, While potassium replacement (C) is needed, holding the
toxic medication and notifying the provider is the
priority. Antiemetics (D) treat the symptom but ignore
the life-threatening toxicity.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a deep vein
thrombosis (DVT) and is receiving a continuous
intravenous heparin infusion. The client’s most recent
activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 120
seconds (control is 30 seconds). Which of the following
actions should the nurse take? A. Continue the heparin
infusion at the current rate and recheck the aPTT in 6
hours. B. Increase the heparin infusion rate to achieve a
therapeutic level. C. Stop the heparin infusion and prepare
to administer protamine sulfate. D. Administer a
subcutaneous injection of vitamin K
immediately.Correct Answer: C. Stop the heparin
infusion and prepare to administer protamine
sulfate. Rationale: The therapeutic aPTT for a client
on heparin is typically 1.5 to 2 times the control value (45
to 60 seconds). An aPTT of 120 seconds is critically high
and places the client at severe risk for hemorrhage. The
nurse must stop the infusion and anticipate
administering protamine sulfate, the specific antidote for
heparin. Continuing (A) or increasing (B) the infusion is
dangerous. Vitamin K (D) is the antidote for warfarin,
not heparin.
3. A nurse is teaching a client who has type 1 diabetes
mellitus how to mix regular insulin and NPH insulin in the
same syringe. Which of the following instructions should
the nurse include? A. Draw up the NPH insulin first, then
draw up the regular insulin. B. Inject air into the NPH vial
first, then inject air into the regular insulin vial. C. Draw
up the regular insulin first, then draw up the NPH insulin.
D. Roll both vials vigorously between the hands before
, drawing up the medication.Correct Answer: C.
Draw up the regular insulin first, then draw up
the NPH insulin. Rationale: When mixing insulins,
the nurse should follow the "clear before cloudy" rule.
Regular insulin is clear, and NPH insulin is cloudy. The
nurse should inject air into the NPH (cloudy) vial first,
then inject air into the regular (clear) vial, and draw up
the regular (clear) insulin first. This prevents
contaminating the rapid/short-acting clear insulin with
the intermediate-acting cloudy insulin. Rolling (D) is only
for cloudy insulins like NPH, not regular insulin.
4. A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client
who was brought in with a suspected opioid overdose. The
client is unresponsive with a respiratory rate of 6/min and
pinpoint pupils. After administering naloxone, which of
the following findings should the nurse prioritize
monitoring? A. The client's blood pressure and heart rate
for hypertension. B. The client's respiratory status for
return of severe respiratory depression. C. The client's
temperature for sudden hyperthermia. D. The client's
blood glucose levels for severe hypoglycemia.Correct
Answer: B. The client's respiratory status for
return of severe respiratory depression.
Rationale: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to
reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression. However,
the half-life of naloxone is significantly shorter than that
of most opioids. Therefore, once the naloxone wears off,
the client can slip back into severe respiratory depression
and coma. The nurse must continuously monitor the
client's respiratory status and be prepared to administer
additional doses of naloxone. Hypertension (A) and
hyperthermia (C) are not primary concerns, and
naloxone does not typically cause hypoglycemia (D).
, 5. A nurse is reviewing the medication record for a client who
has hypertension and is taking lisinopril. The client
reports a new, persistent, dry, hacking cough that is
interfering with their sleep. Which of the following actions
should the nurse take? A. Advise the client to take the
medication with a full glass of orange juice to soothe the
throat. B. Instruct the client to use an over-the-counter
cough suppressant containing dextromethorphan. C.
Notify the healthcare provider, as this is a common
adverse effect that may require switching to an ARB. D.
Reassure the client that the cough is a temporary side
effect that will resolve in a few days.Correct Answer:
C. Notify the healthcare provider, as this is a
common adverse effect that may require
switching to an ARB. Rationale: A persistent, dry,
hacking cough is a well-known adverse effect of ACE
inhibitors (like lisinopril) caused by the accumulation of
bradykinin in the lungs. It does not resolve with time (D)
or cough suppressants (B), and orange juice (A) will not
help. The provider should be notified so the client can be
switched to an Angiotensin II Receptor Blocker (ARB),
which does not cause bradykinin accumulation and is an
appropriate alternative.
6. A nurse is caring for a client who has hyperlipidemia and
has been taking simvastatin for the past three months. The
client calls the clinic reporting severe, unexplained muscle
aching and weakness in their legs and back, along with
dark-colored urine. Which of the following instructions
should the nurse provide? A. "Take an over-the-counter
NSAID for the muscle pain and increase your fluid intake."
B. "Stop taking the medication immediately and come to
the clinic for laboratory testing." C. "This is an expected
side effect; try applying a heating pad to the affected
muscles." D. "Take the medication at bedtime to reduce
