NR 546 ADVANCED PSYCHOPHARMACOLOGY FOR THE PMHNP
WEEK FINAL EXAM TEST BANK ACTUAL 2026/2027 PRACTICE
QUESTIONS AND STUDY GUIDE COMPLETE ACCURATE EXAM
REAL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH
DETAILED RATIONALES (100% CORRECT VERIFIED SOLUTIONS)
CURRENTLY UPDATED VERSION 2026 EDITION |GUARANTEED
SUCCESS A+|FULL REVISED NR 546 FINAL EXAM |JUST
RELEASED
1. Which of the following statements best explains the monoamine
hypothesis of depression?
A. Depression is caused by a deficiency of monoamine
neurotransmission.
B. Depression is a result of a chemical imbalance of monoamine
neurotransmission.
C. Depression is caused by an excess of monoamine
neurotransmission.
D. Depression results from maladaptive or irrational cognitions
taking the form of distorted thoughts, core beliefs, and judgments.
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Depression is caused by a deficiency of
monoamine neurotransmission.
Rationale: The monoamine hypothesis posits that depression is
primarily due to a deficiency of monoamine neurotransmitters,
including serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine, at key synaptic
sites in the central nervous system. This foundational understanding
,guides the use of antidepressants that increase monoamine
availability. Option B is a more general statement, but A is the
specific hypothesis. Option C is incorrect as excess monoamines are
associated with mania. Option D describes cognitive theory, not the
monoamine hypothesis.
2. Atrophy of which two brain areas can lead to overactivity of the
HPA axis?
A. Hippocampus and amygdala
B. Prefrontal cortex and thalamus
C. Hypothalamus and pituitary gland
D. Basal ganglia and cerebellum
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Hippocampus and amygdala
Rationale: Atrophy of the hippocampus and amygdala is associated
with dysregulation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA)
axis, leading to its overactivity. The hippocampus normally provides
negative feedback to the HPA axis to regulate cortisol release. When
this area atrophies, feedback inhibition is reduced, resulting in
chronic hypercortisolemia commonly seen in depression and chronic
stress states.
3. Which medication is considered first-line treatment for
depression?
,A. First-generation antipsychotic (FGA)
B. Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor (SSRI)
C. Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitor (MAOI)
D. Tricyclic Antidepressant (TCA)
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor
(SSRI)
Rationale: SSRIs are considered first-line pharmacotherapy for
depression due to their favorable safety profile, tolerability, and
efficacy. They are preferred over TCAs and MAOIs which have
more significant side effect profiles and dietary restrictions.
4. When treating a patient for major depressive disorder, which
medication would the PMHNP consider first?
A. Depakote
B. Selegiline
C. Escitalopram
D. Isocarboxazid
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Escitalopram
, Rationale: Escitalopram is an SSRI and is considered a first-line
treatment for major depressive disorder. Depakote is a mood
stabilizer, while Selegiline and Isocarboxazid are MAOIs, which are
typically reserved for treatment-resistant cases due to dietary
restrictions and side effect profiles.
5. Which SSRI is most likely to cause discontinuation syndrome if
abruptly stopped?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Selegiline
C. Mirtazapine
D. Paroxetine
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Paroxetine
Rationale: Paroxetine has the shortest half-life among SSRIs and is
most associated with discontinuation syndrome, which can include
dizziness, nausea, headache, paresthesias, and anxiety. Fluoxetine
has a long half-life and is least likely to cause withdrawal symptoms.
Selegiline is an MAOI and mirtazapine is an atypical antidepressant.
6. Which medication should not be prescribed to a patient with a
seizure history?
A. Venlafaxine
WEEK FINAL EXAM TEST BANK ACTUAL 2026/2027 PRACTICE
QUESTIONS AND STUDY GUIDE COMPLETE ACCURATE EXAM
REAL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH
DETAILED RATIONALES (100% CORRECT VERIFIED SOLUTIONS)
CURRENTLY UPDATED VERSION 2026 EDITION |GUARANTEED
SUCCESS A+|FULL REVISED NR 546 FINAL EXAM |JUST
RELEASED
1. Which of the following statements best explains the monoamine
hypothesis of depression?
A. Depression is caused by a deficiency of monoamine
neurotransmission.
B. Depression is a result of a chemical imbalance of monoamine
neurotransmission.
C. Depression is caused by an excess of monoamine
neurotransmission.
D. Depression results from maladaptive or irrational cognitions
taking the form of distorted thoughts, core beliefs, and judgments.
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Depression is caused by a deficiency of
monoamine neurotransmission.
Rationale: The monoamine hypothesis posits that depression is
primarily due to a deficiency of monoamine neurotransmitters,
including serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine, at key synaptic
sites in the central nervous system. This foundational understanding
,guides the use of antidepressants that increase monoamine
availability. Option B is a more general statement, but A is the
specific hypothesis. Option C is incorrect as excess monoamines are
associated with mania. Option D describes cognitive theory, not the
monoamine hypothesis.
2. Atrophy of which two brain areas can lead to overactivity of the
HPA axis?
A. Hippocampus and amygdala
B. Prefrontal cortex and thalamus
C. Hypothalamus and pituitary gland
D. Basal ganglia and cerebellum
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Hippocampus and amygdala
Rationale: Atrophy of the hippocampus and amygdala is associated
with dysregulation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA)
axis, leading to its overactivity. The hippocampus normally provides
negative feedback to the HPA axis to regulate cortisol release. When
this area atrophies, feedback inhibition is reduced, resulting in
chronic hypercortisolemia commonly seen in depression and chronic
stress states.
3. Which medication is considered first-line treatment for
depression?
,A. First-generation antipsychotic (FGA)
B. Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor (SSRI)
C. Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitor (MAOI)
D. Tricyclic Antidepressant (TCA)
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor
(SSRI)
Rationale: SSRIs are considered first-line pharmacotherapy for
depression due to their favorable safety profile, tolerability, and
efficacy. They are preferred over TCAs and MAOIs which have
more significant side effect profiles and dietary restrictions.
4. When treating a patient for major depressive disorder, which
medication would the PMHNP consider first?
A. Depakote
B. Selegiline
C. Escitalopram
D. Isocarboxazid
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Escitalopram
, Rationale: Escitalopram is an SSRI and is considered a first-line
treatment for major depressive disorder. Depakote is a mood
stabilizer, while Selegiline and Isocarboxazid are MAOIs, which are
typically reserved for treatment-resistant cases due to dietary
restrictions and side effect profiles.
5. Which SSRI is most likely to cause discontinuation syndrome if
abruptly stopped?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Selegiline
C. Mirtazapine
D. Paroxetine
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Paroxetine
Rationale: Paroxetine has the shortest half-life among SSRIs and is
most associated with discontinuation syndrome, which can include
dizziness, nausea, headache, paresthesias, and anxiety. Fluoxetine
has a long half-life and is least likely to cause withdrawal symptoms.
Selegiline is an MAOI and mirtazapine is an atypical antidepressant.
6. Which medication should not be prescribed to a patient with a
seizure history?
A. Venlafaxine
