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BSN 366 HESI RN EXIT EXAM TEST BANK Exam 2026-2027
BANK QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS
EXAM QUESTIONS WILL COME FROM HERE (100% Latest
Already Graded A+
QUESTION 1
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease COPD is receiving
oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. Which assessment
finding indicates that the oxygen therapy is effective?
A. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
B. Pulse oximetry reading of 92 percent
C. Client reports feeling less anxious
D. Arterial blood gas shows PaCO2 of 58 mm Hg
Answer: B. Pulse oximetry reading of 92 percent
Explanation: The primary goal of oxygen therapy in COPD is to maintain
adequate oxygenation while avoiding suppression of the hypoxic drive.
A pulse oximetry reading of 92 percent indicates that oxygenation is
within an acceptable target range typically 88 to 92 percent for clients
with COPD who are at risk for carbon dioxide retention. Option A is
elevated and suggests respiratory distress. Option C is subjective and
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not a direct measure of oxygenation. Option D indicates hypercapnia
which may suggest worsening respiratory failure or oxygen-induced
hypoventilation.
QUESTION 2
A nurse is caring for a client who is 24 hours post-opt following a total
hip replacement. Which intervention is most important to prevent
dislocation of the prosthesis?
A. Maintain the client in a low Fowler's position
B. Keep a pillow between the client's knees when turning
C. Encourage the client to perform active range-of-motion exercises
D. Instruct the client to avoid flexing the hip more than 90 degrees
Answer: D. Instruct the client to avoid flexing the hip more than 90
degrees
Explanation: After total hip replacement, the primary concern is
preventing dislocation of the prosthetic joint. Hip flexion beyond 90
degrees increases the risk of dislocation. Other precautions include
avoiding adduction and internal rotation. Option B is correct for
maintaining abduction but does not specifically address flexion. Option
A is not directly related to dislocation prevention. Option C must be
performed with caution and under guidance.
QUESTION 3
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A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which laboratory
value requires the most immediate intervention?
A. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
B. Serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L
C. Serum calcium of 9.5 mg/dL
D. Serum magnesium of 2.0 mEq/L
Answer: B. Serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L
Explanation: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause significant
potassium depletion. A serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L is below the
normal range of 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L and poses a risk for cardiac
dysrhythmias. Hypokalemia can potentiate digoxin toxicity and lead to
life-threatening arrhythmias. Option A is low normal. Options C and D
are within normal limits.
QUESTION 4
The nurse is assessing a client with diabetic ketoacidosis DKA. Which
clinical manifestation is consistent with this diagnosis?
A. Moist skin and bradycardia
B. Fruity breath odor and Kussmaul respirations
C. Hypertension and oliguria
D. Hyperreflexia and muscle spasticity
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Answer: B. Fruity breath odor and Kussmaul respirations
Explanation: DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia, ketosis, and
metabolic acidosis. The fruity breath odor is due to acetone, a ketone
body. Kussmaul respirations are deep, rapid breaths that are the body's
compensatory mechanism to blow off carbon dioxide and reduce
acidosis. Option A describes hypoglycemia. Options C and D are not
characteristic of DKA.
QUESTION 5
A client is receiving intravenous heparin for treatment of a pulmonary
embolism. Which laboratory finding indicates that the therapy is within
therapeutic range?
A. Activated partial thromboplastin time aPTT of 60 seconds
B. International normalized ratio INR of 2.5
C. Platelet count of 150,000 per microliter
D. Prothrombin time PT of 12 seconds
Answer: A. Activated partial thromboplastin time aPTT of 60 seconds
Explanation: Heparin therapy is monitored using the aPTT. The
therapeutic range for heparin is typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the control
value. If the normal control is approximately 30 seconds, a therapeutic
aPTT would be 45 to 75 seconds. A value of 60 seconds indicates
adequate anticoagulation. Option B is used to monitor warfarin
BSN 366 HESI RN EXIT EXAM TEST BANK Exam 2026-2027
BANK QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS
EXAM QUESTIONS WILL COME FROM HERE (100% Latest
Already Graded A+
QUESTION 1
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease COPD is receiving
oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. Which assessment
finding indicates that the oxygen therapy is effective?
A. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
B. Pulse oximetry reading of 92 percent
C. Client reports feeling less anxious
D. Arterial blood gas shows PaCO2 of 58 mm Hg
Answer: B. Pulse oximetry reading of 92 percent
Explanation: The primary goal of oxygen therapy in COPD is to maintain
adequate oxygenation while avoiding suppression of the hypoxic drive.
A pulse oximetry reading of 92 percent indicates that oxygenation is
within an acceptable target range typically 88 to 92 percent for clients
with COPD who are at risk for carbon dioxide retention. Option A is
elevated and suggests respiratory distress. Option C is subjective and
,2|Page
not a direct measure of oxygenation. Option D indicates hypercapnia
which may suggest worsening respiratory failure or oxygen-induced
hypoventilation.
QUESTION 2
A nurse is caring for a client who is 24 hours post-opt following a total
hip replacement. Which intervention is most important to prevent
dislocation of the prosthesis?
A. Maintain the client in a low Fowler's position
B. Keep a pillow between the client's knees when turning
C. Encourage the client to perform active range-of-motion exercises
D. Instruct the client to avoid flexing the hip more than 90 degrees
Answer: D. Instruct the client to avoid flexing the hip more than 90
degrees
Explanation: After total hip replacement, the primary concern is
preventing dislocation of the prosthetic joint. Hip flexion beyond 90
degrees increases the risk of dislocation. Other precautions include
avoiding adduction and internal rotation. Option B is correct for
maintaining abduction but does not specifically address flexion. Option
A is not directly related to dislocation prevention. Option C must be
performed with caution and under guidance.
QUESTION 3
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A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which laboratory
value requires the most immediate intervention?
A. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
B. Serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L
C. Serum calcium of 9.5 mg/dL
D. Serum magnesium of 2.0 mEq/L
Answer: B. Serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L
Explanation: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause significant
potassium depletion. A serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L is below the
normal range of 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L and poses a risk for cardiac
dysrhythmias. Hypokalemia can potentiate digoxin toxicity and lead to
life-threatening arrhythmias. Option A is low normal. Options C and D
are within normal limits.
QUESTION 4
The nurse is assessing a client with diabetic ketoacidosis DKA. Which
clinical manifestation is consistent with this diagnosis?
A. Moist skin and bradycardia
B. Fruity breath odor and Kussmaul respirations
C. Hypertension and oliguria
D. Hyperreflexia and muscle spasticity
, 4|Page
Answer: B. Fruity breath odor and Kussmaul respirations
Explanation: DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia, ketosis, and
metabolic acidosis. The fruity breath odor is due to acetone, a ketone
body. Kussmaul respirations are deep, rapid breaths that are the body's
compensatory mechanism to blow off carbon dioxide and reduce
acidosis. Option A describes hypoglycemia. Options C and D are not
characteristic of DKA.
QUESTION 5
A client is receiving intravenous heparin for treatment of a pulmonary
embolism. Which laboratory finding indicates that the therapy is within
therapeutic range?
A. Activated partial thromboplastin time aPTT of 60 seconds
B. International normalized ratio INR of 2.5
C. Platelet count of 150,000 per microliter
D. Prothrombin time PT of 12 seconds
Answer: A. Activated partial thromboplastin time aPTT of 60 seconds
Explanation: Heparin therapy is monitored using the aPTT. The
therapeutic range for heparin is typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the control
value. If the normal control is approximately 30 seconds, a therapeutic
aPTT would be 45 to 75 seconds. A value of 60 seconds indicates
adequate anticoagulation. Option B is used to monitor warfarin
