MICP – Mobile Intensive Care Paramedic (Alaska)
Master Licensing Exam Updated 2026 | 350+
Practice Questions & Verified Answers | Ultimate
Alaska Mobile Intensive Care Paramedic Study
Guide, Advanced EMS Certification Exam Prep,
Critical Care Transport, Advanced Cardiac Life
Support (ACLS), ECG Interpretation, Airway &
Ventilator Management, Trauma, Emergency
Pharmacology, Pediatric & Neonatal Emergencies,
Clinical Case Reviews, Detailed Rationales
Question 1: Which document specifically defines the authorized procedures
and medication limits for an Alaska MICP?
A. National EMS Scope of Practice Manual
B. Alaska State Medical Board Protocol Handbook
C. Federal EMS Guidebook
D. National Registry of EMTs Guidelines
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Alaska State Medical Board Protocol Handbook
Rationale: The Alaska State Medical Board Protocol Handbook outlines the exact
scope, including procedures and medication limits, for MICPs practicing in Alaska.
While national guidelines exist, the state-specific handbook is the definitive source for
authorized activities in Alaska.
Question 2: In pre-hospital ethics, the principle of beneficence requires the
provider to:
A. Respect the patient's wishes above all else
B. Provide care that maximizes benefit and minimizes harm
C. Distribute resources equally among all patients
D. Avoid any intervention without explicit consent
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Provide care that maximizes benefit and minimizes
harm
Rationale: Beneficence obligates clinicians to act in the patient's best interest,
delivering beneficial care while limiting potential harm. This differs from autonomy
(respecting wishes) or justice (distributing resources).
Question 3: When documenting a refusal of care, which element is least
essential to include in the PCR?
A. Patient's verbal statement refusing care
B. Provider's assessment of the patient's decision-making capacity
C. The exact time the refusal occurred
D. The provider's personal opinion on the patient's condition
,CORRECT ANSWER: D. The provider's personal opinion on the patient's
condition
Rationale: Personal opinions are not required; objective facts such as the statement,
capacity assessment, and time are mandatory for proper documentation of a refusal.
Question 4: Under Alaska law, a suspected case of child abuse must be
reported to:
A. The local police department only
B. The Alaska Department of Health and Social Services within 24 hours
C. The patient's primary care physician
D. The regional medical director
CORRECT ANSWER: B. The Alaska Department of Health and Social Services
within 24 hours
Rationale: Alaska statutes require reporting suspected child abuse to the Department of
Health and Social Services promptly, typically within 24 hours.
Question 5: Which of the following best describes a "peer review" in a QA
program?
A. Real-time supervision of field performance
B. Retrospective evaluation of patient care by colleagues
C. Public posting of performance metrics
D. Random drug testing of crew members
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Retrospective evaluation of patient care by colleagues
Rationale: Peer review involves colleagues reviewing past cases to identify strengths
and areas for improvement, distinguishing it from direct supervision or punitive
measures.
Question 6: The primary goal of a safety culture in EMS is to:
A. Reduce liability costs for the agency
B. Encourage reporting of near-misses without fear of punishment
C. Increase the number of transports per shift
D. Eliminate all patient interactions
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Encourage reporting of near-misses without fear of
punishment
Rationale: A just safety culture prioritizes learning from errors and near-misses through
non-punitive reporting to improve system safety, rather than focusing on liability or
productivity.
Question 7: What is the primary contraindication for the use of a
nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)?
,A. Patient is conscious with an intact gag reflex
B. Suspected facial or skull fracture
C. The patient is under 8 years old
D. Copious oral secretions are present
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Suspected facial or skull fracture
Rationale: The NPA is contraindicated in patients with suspected facial or basilar skull
fractures due to the risk of intracranial placement. An intact gag reflex is a
contraindication for an oropharyngeal airway, not NPA.
Question 8: A patient with severe hypothermia and no detectable pulse should
have a pulse check performed for up to:
A. 15 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 45 seconds
D. 60 seconds
CORRECT ANSWER: D. 60 seconds
Rationale: In hypothermic patients, the pulse may be extremely slow and difficult to
palpate. Alaska protocols recommend checking for a pulse for up to 60 seconds before
determining pulselessness.
Question 9: What is the maximum allowable time for a suctioning attempt in a
patient with airway compromise?
A. 10 seconds
B. 15 seconds
C. 20 seconds
D. 30 seconds
CORRECT ANSWER: B. 15 seconds
Rationale: Suctioning should not exceed 15 seconds per attempt to minimize hypoxia.
Pre-ventilation with 100% oxygen is recommended to reduce the hypoxia associated
with suctioning.
Question 10: Which of the following is NOT part of the initial scope of
authorized activities for an Alaska MICP as defined in 12 AAC 40.370?
A. Performing endotracheal intubation
B. Administering parenteral medications
C. Performing surgical cricothyrotomy
D. Initiating and maintaining intravenous routes
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Performing surgical cricothyrotomy
Rationale: The authorized activities listed in 12 AAC 40.370 include
electrocardiographic monitoring, defibrillation, IV therapy, endotracheal intubation,
, gastric suction, blood draws, medication administration, and PASG use. Surgical
cricothyrotomy is not listed as a standard authorized activity but may be authorized by a
sponsoring physician as an "other emergency procedure".
Question 11: A patient with frostbite to the feet should not be allowed to walk
because:
A. Walking increases pain and discomfort
B. Refreezing after walking may cause more tissue damage
C. Once frostbitten feet are rewarmed, the patient becomes nonambulatory
D. Walking causes the frostbitten tissue to fall off
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Once frostbitten feet are rewarmed, the patient
becomes nonambulatory
Rationale: Alaska protocols state that once frostbitten feet are rewarmed, the patient
becomes nonambulatory. The patient should not be allowed to walk except when the life
of the patient or rescuer is in danger.
Question 12: A patient presents with a respiratory rate of 30 breaths per
minute, shallow depth, and use of accessory muscles. Which term best
describes this presentation?
A. Hyperventilation
B. Hypoventilation
C. Tachypnea with respiratory distress
D. Apnea
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Tachypnea with respiratory distress
Rationale: Tachypnea indicates increased rate; shallow breaths and accessory muscle
use indicate respiratory distress. Hyperventilation typically involves deep, rapid
breathing, while hypoventilation is slow or shallow breathing.
Question 13: Which medication is the first-line agent for the treatment of
symptomatic bradycardia in the pre-hospital setting?
A. Amiodarone
B. Atropine
C. Lidocaine
D. Epinephrine
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Atropine
Rationale: Atropine 0.5 mg IV/IO is the first-line agent for symptomatic bradycardia.
Amiodarone and Lidocaine are antiarrhythmics used for tachyarrhythmias, while
Epinephrine is used in cardiac arrest or anaphylaxis.
Question 14: During a cardiac arrest, the EMS crew observes a coarse
ventricular fibrillation rhythm on the monitor. What is the correct immediate
action?
Master Licensing Exam Updated 2026 | 350+
Practice Questions & Verified Answers | Ultimate
Alaska Mobile Intensive Care Paramedic Study
Guide, Advanced EMS Certification Exam Prep,
Critical Care Transport, Advanced Cardiac Life
Support (ACLS), ECG Interpretation, Airway &
Ventilator Management, Trauma, Emergency
Pharmacology, Pediatric & Neonatal Emergencies,
Clinical Case Reviews, Detailed Rationales
Question 1: Which document specifically defines the authorized procedures
and medication limits for an Alaska MICP?
A. National EMS Scope of Practice Manual
B. Alaska State Medical Board Protocol Handbook
C. Federal EMS Guidebook
D. National Registry of EMTs Guidelines
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Alaska State Medical Board Protocol Handbook
Rationale: The Alaska State Medical Board Protocol Handbook outlines the exact
scope, including procedures and medication limits, for MICPs practicing in Alaska.
While national guidelines exist, the state-specific handbook is the definitive source for
authorized activities in Alaska.
Question 2: In pre-hospital ethics, the principle of beneficence requires the
provider to:
A. Respect the patient's wishes above all else
B. Provide care that maximizes benefit and minimizes harm
C. Distribute resources equally among all patients
D. Avoid any intervention without explicit consent
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Provide care that maximizes benefit and minimizes
harm
Rationale: Beneficence obligates clinicians to act in the patient's best interest,
delivering beneficial care while limiting potential harm. This differs from autonomy
(respecting wishes) or justice (distributing resources).
Question 3: When documenting a refusal of care, which element is least
essential to include in the PCR?
A. Patient's verbal statement refusing care
B. Provider's assessment of the patient's decision-making capacity
C. The exact time the refusal occurred
D. The provider's personal opinion on the patient's condition
,CORRECT ANSWER: D. The provider's personal opinion on the patient's
condition
Rationale: Personal opinions are not required; objective facts such as the statement,
capacity assessment, and time are mandatory for proper documentation of a refusal.
Question 4: Under Alaska law, a suspected case of child abuse must be
reported to:
A. The local police department only
B. The Alaska Department of Health and Social Services within 24 hours
C. The patient's primary care physician
D. The regional medical director
CORRECT ANSWER: B. The Alaska Department of Health and Social Services
within 24 hours
Rationale: Alaska statutes require reporting suspected child abuse to the Department of
Health and Social Services promptly, typically within 24 hours.
Question 5: Which of the following best describes a "peer review" in a QA
program?
A. Real-time supervision of field performance
B. Retrospective evaluation of patient care by colleagues
C. Public posting of performance metrics
D. Random drug testing of crew members
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Retrospective evaluation of patient care by colleagues
Rationale: Peer review involves colleagues reviewing past cases to identify strengths
and areas for improvement, distinguishing it from direct supervision or punitive
measures.
Question 6: The primary goal of a safety culture in EMS is to:
A. Reduce liability costs for the agency
B. Encourage reporting of near-misses without fear of punishment
C. Increase the number of transports per shift
D. Eliminate all patient interactions
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Encourage reporting of near-misses without fear of
punishment
Rationale: A just safety culture prioritizes learning from errors and near-misses through
non-punitive reporting to improve system safety, rather than focusing on liability or
productivity.
Question 7: What is the primary contraindication for the use of a
nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)?
,A. Patient is conscious with an intact gag reflex
B. Suspected facial or skull fracture
C. The patient is under 8 years old
D. Copious oral secretions are present
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Suspected facial or skull fracture
Rationale: The NPA is contraindicated in patients with suspected facial or basilar skull
fractures due to the risk of intracranial placement. An intact gag reflex is a
contraindication for an oropharyngeal airway, not NPA.
Question 8: A patient with severe hypothermia and no detectable pulse should
have a pulse check performed for up to:
A. 15 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 45 seconds
D. 60 seconds
CORRECT ANSWER: D. 60 seconds
Rationale: In hypothermic patients, the pulse may be extremely slow and difficult to
palpate. Alaska protocols recommend checking for a pulse for up to 60 seconds before
determining pulselessness.
Question 9: What is the maximum allowable time for a suctioning attempt in a
patient with airway compromise?
A. 10 seconds
B. 15 seconds
C. 20 seconds
D. 30 seconds
CORRECT ANSWER: B. 15 seconds
Rationale: Suctioning should not exceed 15 seconds per attempt to minimize hypoxia.
Pre-ventilation with 100% oxygen is recommended to reduce the hypoxia associated
with suctioning.
Question 10: Which of the following is NOT part of the initial scope of
authorized activities for an Alaska MICP as defined in 12 AAC 40.370?
A. Performing endotracheal intubation
B. Administering parenteral medications
C. Performing surgical cricothyrotomy
D. Initiating and maintaining intravenous routes
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Performing surgical cricothyrotomy
Rationale: The authorized activities listed in 12 AAC 40.370 include
electrocardiographic monitoring, defibrillation, IV therapy, endotracheal intubation,
, gastric suction, blood draws, medication administration, and PASG use. Surgical
cricothyrotomy is not listed as a standard authorized activity but may be authorized by a
sponsoring physician as an "other emergency procedure".
Question 11: A patient with frostbite to the feet should not be allowed to walk
because:
A. Walking increases pain and discomfort
B. Refreezing after walking may cause more tissue damage
C. Once frostbitten feet are rewarmed, the patient becomes nonambulatory
D. Walking causes the frostbitten tissue to fall off
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Once frostbitten feet are rewarmed, the patient
becomes nonambulatory
Rationale: Alaska protocols state that once frostbitten feet are rewarmed, the patient
becomes nonambulatory. The patient should not be allowed to walk except when the life
of the patient or rescuer is in danger.
Question 12: A patient presents with a respiratory rate of 30 breaths per
minute, shallow depth, and use of accessory muscles. Which term best
describes this presentation?
A. Hyperventilation
B. Hypoventilation
C. Tachypnea with respiratory distress
D. Apnea
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Tachypnea with respiratory distress
Rationale: Tachypnea indicates increased rate; shallow breaths and accessory muscle
use indicate respiratory distress. Hyperventilation typically involves deep, rapid
breathing, while hypoventilation is slow or shallow breathing.
Question 13: Which medication is the first-line agent for the treatment of
symptomatic bradycardia in the pre-hospital setting?
A. Amiodarone
B. Atropine
C. Lidocaine
D. Epinephrine
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Atropine
Rationale: Atropine 0.5 mg IV/IO is the first-line agent for symptomatic bradycardia.
Amiodarone and Lidocaine are antiarrhythmics used for tachyarrhythmias, while
Epinephrine is used in cardiac arrest or anaphylaxis.
Question 14: During a cardiac arrest, the EMS crew observes a coarse
ventricular fibrillation rhythm on the monitor. What is the correct immediate
action?
