RN ENDOSCOPY GI LAB A
RELIAS EXAM ACTUAL 2026/2027
- COMPLETE EXAM-STYLE
LATEST MOCK PRACTICE SET
170 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
RN ENDOSCOPY GI LAB A RELIAS EXAM ACTUAL 2026/2027 - COMPLETE EXAM-STYLE QUESTIONS |
DETAILED RATIONALES - PASS GUARANTEED - A+ GRADED. It contains 170 carefully selected questions that
reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is accompanied by a correct answer
and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology, pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 170 Questions
Foundations - Application - RN Endoscopy GI LAB A Relias Actual 2026/2027 Complete -style Detailed
Rationales PASS Guaranteed A Endoscopy Nursing GI LAB Graduate / Advanced Registered Nurse APRN
Level
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Section A - Colonoscopy Section B - Appropriate
Questions 1 to 43 Questions 44 to 86
Section C - Sedation Section D - Develops
Questions 87 to 129 Questions 130 to 170
,Section A - Colonoscopy
Q1.
A patient with a history of mitral valve prolapse and a prosthetic joint is scheduled for a
routine colonoscopy. According to current ASGE/SGNA guidelines, what is the
appropriate antibiotic prophylaxis recommendation?
A. Administer amoxicillin 2 g orally 30-60 B. Administer cefazolin 1 g IV before the
minutes before the procedure to prevent procedure to prevent prosthetic joint
infective endocarditis. infection.
C. No antibiotic prophylaxis is indicated for D. Administer clindamycin 600 mg orally 1
either indication. hour before the procedure only if the patient
has a prosthetic heart valve.
Correct: C - No antibiotic prophylaxis is indicated for either indication.
Rationale:Current guidelines from ASGE, AHA, and AAOS state that antibiotic prophylaxis is
not recommended solely to prevent infective endocarditis or prosthetic joint infection for
routine GI endoscopic procedures. Options A, B, and D incorrectly suggest prophylaxis for
these indications, which contradicts contemporary evidence-based practice.
Q2.
During an ERCP, the nurse notes a sudden decrease in oxygen saturation to 82% and the
patient becomes hypotensive. The physician is injecting contrast into the pancreatic duct.
What is the most likely complication and the immediate priority action?
A. Pancreatic duct rupture; immediately stop B. Contrast-induced anaphylaxis; administer
the injection and prepare for emergency epinephrine 0.3 mg IM and call for
surgery. anesthesia.
C. Sedation-induced respiratory depression; D. Air embolism; place the patient in
increase oxygen flow and stimulate the Trendelenburg position and administer 100%
patient. oxygen.
Correct: B - Contrast-induced anaphylaxis; administer epinephrine 0.3 mg IM and call for
anesthesia.
Rationale:Sudden hypoxia and hypotension during contrast injection suggest anaphylaxis to
contrast media, a rare but life-threatening complication. Immediate epinephrine and
supportive care are critical. Option A is not the typical immediate presentation; C is less likely
given the timing with contrast injection; D is not a recognized complication of ERCP.
Q3.
A patient undergoing PEG tube placement becomes agitated and confused during the
procedure. The nurse assesses the patient's vital signs: BP 90/60 mmHg, HR 110 bpm, RR
Page 3
, Section A - Colonoscopy
24/min, SpO2 92% on room air. Which set of findings would most likely indicate a
developing complication rather than inadequate sedation?
A. Decreased breath sounds on the left side B. Increased abdominal girth and tympany
and tracheal deviation. on percussion.
C. Erythema at the insertion site and fever. D. Nausea and retching without vomiting.
Correct: A - Decreased breath sounds on the left side and tracheal deviation.
Rationale:Agitation, hypotension, tachycardia, and hypoxia during PEG placement can signal
a pneumothorax from inadvertent lung puncture. Decreased breath sounds and tracheal
deviation confirm this life-threatening complication. Option B suggests gastric distention,
which is common and less immediately dangerous; C indicates local infection, not acute; D is
a common response to gagging.
Q4.
Which of the following represents the most appropriate nursing action when a patient
receiving moderate sedation with midazolam and fentanyl exhibits a respiratory rate of 6
breaths/min and does not respond to physical stimulation?
A. Administer flumazenil 0.2 mg IV over 30 B. Administer naloxone 0.4 mg IV push
seconds and reassess. immediately.
C. Increase oxygen to 10 L/min via D. Initiate bag-mask ventilation and prepare
non-rebreather mask and continue to to administer flumazenil.
observe.
Correct: D - Initiate bag-mask ventilation and prepare to administer flumazenil.
Rationale:Severe respiratory depression with unresponsiveness requires immediate airway
support and reversal. Bag-mask ventilation is the priority to maintain oxygenation. Flumazenil
is indicated to reverse benzodiazepine effects, but airway management precedes
pharmacological reversal. Option A delays airway intervention; B only reverses opioids; C is
insufficient for apnea.
Q5.
A patient develops bright red bleeding after a polypectomy. The endoscopist requests a
dilute epinephrine injection. The nurse prepares a 1:10,000 solution. How many mL of
epinephrine 1:10,000 are needed to make 100 mL of a 1:100,000 solution?
A. 1 mL B. 5 mL
C. 10 mL D. 20 mL
Correct: C - 10 mL
Page 4
RELIAS EXAM ACTUAL 2026/2027
- COMPLETE EXAM-STYLE
LATEST MOCK PRACTICE SET
170 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
RN ENDOSCOPY GI LAB A RELIAS EXAM ACTUAL 2026/2027 - COMPLETE EXAM-STYLE QUESTIONS |
DETAILED RATIONALES - PASS GUARANTEED - A+ GRADED. It contains 170 carefully selected questions that
reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is accompanied by a correct answer
and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology, pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 170 Questions
Foundations - Application - RN Endoscopy GI LAB A Relias Actual 2026/2027 Complete -style Detailed
Rationales PASS Guaranteed A Endoscopy Nursing GI LAB Graduate / Advanced Registered Nurse APRN
Level
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Section A - Colonoscopy Section B - Appropriate
Questions 1 to 43 Questions 44 to 86
Section C - Sedation Section D - Develops
Questions 87 to 129 Questions 130 to 170
,Section A - Colonoscopy
Q1.
A patient with a history of mitral valve prolapse and a prosthetic joint is scheduled for a
routine colonoscopy. According to current ASGE/SGNA guidelines, what is the
appropriate antibiotic prophylaxis recommendation?
A. Administer amoxicillin 2 g orally 30-60 B. Administer cefazolin 1 g IV before the
minutes before the procedure to prevent procedure to prevent prosthetic joint
infective endocarditis. infection.
C. No antibiotic prophylaxis is indicated for D. Administer clindamycin 600 mg orally 1
either indication. hour before the procedure only if the patient
has a prosthetic heart valve.
Correct: C - No antibiotic prophylaxis is indicated for either indication.
Rationale:Current guidelines from ASGE, AHA, and AAOS state that antibiotic prophylaxis is
not recommended solely to prevent infective endocarditis or prosthetic joint infection for
routine GI endoscopic procedures. Options A, B, and D incorrectly suggest prophylaxis for
these indications, which contradicts contemporary evidence-based practice.
Q2.
During an ERCP, the nurse notes a sudden decrease in oxygen saturation to 82% and the
patient becomes hypotensive. The physician is injecting contrast into the pancreatic duct.
What is the most likely complication and the immediate priority action?
A. Pancreatic duct rupture; immediately stop B. Contrast-induced anaphylaxis; administer
the injection and prepare for emergency epinephrine 0.3 mg IM and call for
surgery. anesthesia.
C. Sedation-induced respiratory depression; D. Air embolism; place the patient in
increase oxygen flow and stimulate the Trendelenburg position and administer 100%
patient. oxygen.
Correct: B - Contrast-induced anaphylaxis; administer epinephrine 0.3 mg IM and call for
anesthesia.
Rationale:Sudden hypoxia and hypotension during contrast injection suggest anaphylaxis to
contrast media, a rare but life-threatening complication. Immediate epinephrine and
supportive care are critical. Option A is not the typical immediate presentation; C is less likely
given the timing with contrast injection; D is not a recognized complication of ERCP.
Q3.
A patient undergoing PEG tube placement becomes agitated and confused during the
procedure. The nurse assesses the patient's vital signs: BP 90/60 mmHg, HR 110 bpm, RR
Page 3
, Section A - Colonoscopy
24/min, SpO2 92% on room air. Which set of findings would most likely indicate a
developing complication rather than inadequate sedation?
A. Decreased breath sounds on the left side B. Increased abdominal girth and tympany
and tracheal deviation. on percussion.
C. Erythema at the insertion site and fever. D. Nausea and retching without vomiting.
Correct: A - Decreased breath sounds on the left side and tracheal deviation.
Rationale:Agitation, hypotension, tachycardia, and hypoxia during PEG placement can signal
a pneumothorax from inadvertent lung puncture. Decreased breath sounds and tracheal
deviation confirm this life-threatening complication. Option B suggests gastric distention,
which is common and less immediately dangerous; C indicates local infection, not acute; D is
a common response to gagging.
Q4.
Which of the following represents the most appropriate nursing action when a patient
receiving moderate sedation with midazolam and fentanyl exhibits a respiratory rate of 6
breaths/min and does not respond to physical stimulation?
A. Administer flumazenil 0.2 mg IV over 30 B. Administer naloxone 0.4 mg IV push
seconds and reassess. immediately.
C. Increase oxygen to 10 L/min via D. Initiate bag-mask ventilation and prepare
non-rebreather mask and continue to to administer flumazenil.
observe.
Correct: D - Initiate bag-mask ventilation and prepare to administer flumazenil.
Rationale:Severe respiratory depression with unresponsiveness requires immediate airway
support and reversal. Bag-mask ventilation is the priority to maintain oxygenation. Flumazenil
is indicated to reverse benzodiazepine effects, but airway management precedes
pharmacological reversal. Option A delays airway intervention; B only reverses opioids; C is
insufficient for apnea.
Q5.
A patient develops bright red bleeding after a polypectomy. The endoscopist requests a
dilute epinephrine injection. The nurse prepares a 1:10,000 solution. How many mL of
epinephrine 1:10,000 are needed to make 100 mL of a 1:100,000 solution?
A. 1 mL B. 5 mL
C. 10 mL D. 20 mL
Correct: C - 10 mL
Page 4
