NGN RN ATI CAPSTONE PROCTORED
COMPREHENSIVE ASSESSMENT - PRACTICE TEST
2026/2027 EDITION
This is an independent practice assessment for educational study; it is not an official ATI Testing proctored assessment.
Section Overview
This comprehensive proctored practice assessment contains 180 questions across eight sections, aligned with the
ATI Capstone Comprehensive blueprint, the current NCLEX-RN test plan, NGN item types, and evidence-based
nursing practice for 2026/2027.
Sec Topic Qs
1 Management of Care - Safety, Delegation, Legal/Ethical, Case Management 30
2 Health Promotion & Maintenance - Development, Prenatal, Screening 20
3 Psychosocial Integrity - Mental Health, Coping, Communication 20
4 Basic Care & Comfort - Hygiene, Nutrition, Mobility, Pain 15
5 Pharmacological & Parenteral Therapies - Medications, IV, Blood 30
6 Reduction of Risk Potential - Diagnostics, Vitals, Labs, Complications 25
7 Physiological Adaptation - Fluid/Electrolytes, Pathophysiology, Acute/Chronic 25
8 NGN-Style Case Studies - Unfolding Client Scenarios 15
TOTAL 180
Instructions
For each question, select the single best answer. Use the answer key at the end of the assessment to check your work.
Each item includes a brief rationale explaining the correct response. The NGN-style section presents unfolding client
scenarios as separate items.
Answer Key Distribution: 45 A · 45 B · 45 C · 45 D
, Section 1: Management of Care - Safety, Delegation, Legal/Ethical, Case Management
Q1: The nurse is delegating vital sign measurement to a UAP. Which task can the UAP appropriately perform?
A. Administering IV medications
B. Assessing a client's new chest pain
C. Measuring routine vital signs on a stable client [CORRECT]
D. Formulating a nursing diagnosis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: UAPs can measure routine vital signs on stable clients. IV administration, assessment, and diagnosis require a licensed
nurse.
Q2: Which task can be appropriately delegated to an LPN?
A. Administering oral medications to a stable client [CORRECT]
B. Initial assessment of a new admission
C. Evaluating a client's response to treatment
D. Developing the plan of care
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: LPNs can administer medications and perform routine tasks under supervision. Initial assessment, evaluation, and plan
development are RN responsibilities.
Q3: A client with a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order arrests. The nurse should:
A. Begin CPR immediately
B. Provide comfort care as directed and not initiate resuscitation [CORRECT]
C. Call family first
D. Ignore the DNR
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A valid DNR order means no resuscitation should be initiated; the nurse provides comfort/end-of-life care per the order.
Resuscitation would violate the order.
Q4: The nurse is prioritizing care for four clients. Which client should the nurse see first?
A. A client requesting a snack
B. A client due for routine dressing change
C. A client with new-onset chest pain and diaphoresis [CORRECT]
D. A client who wants discharge papers
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: New chest pain with diaphoresis suggests a potential cardiac emergency and takes priority using ABCs. The others are
lower-acuity.
Q5: Which action demonstrates client advocacy?
A. Following orders without question
B. Withholding information from the client
C. Prioritizing the family over the client
D. Speaking up when a client's stated wishes are not being followed [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Advocacy means supporting the client's rights and wishes, including speaking up when they are not honored. The other
actions are not advocacy.
Q6: The nurse is assessing a client's advance directive. Which statement is true regarding advance directives?
A. They are only for clients near death
B. They remove the need for informed consent
C. They document the client's wishes regarding care if they become unable to decide [CORRECT]
D. They are legally binding on all treatments
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Advance directives document a client's treatment wishes if they lose decision-making capacity. They are not limited to
terminal clients or the end of informed consent.
NGN RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment - 2026/2027 Page 2
, Q7: A nurse identifies a potential medication error before it reaches the client. This best reflects which quality
improvement concept?
A. A sentinel event
B. A never event
C. An adverse event
D. A near-miss or close call that should be reported for prevention [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Catching an error before it reaches the client is a near-miss, which should be reported and analyzed to prevent future
errors. The other terms describe events that occur.
Q8: The nurse is providing handoff report using SBAR. What does the 'R' stand for?
A. Reason
B. Reassess
C. Recommendation [CORRECT]
D. Response
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: SBAR = Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation. 'R' is Recommendation.
Q9: Which client is at highest risk for falls?
A. A young client in good health
B. A client who is fully mobile
C. A client who refuses assistance but is stable
D. An older adult who is unsteady and on a new sedative [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: An unsteady older adult on a sedative is at high fall risk due to age, mobility, and medication effects. The others are lower
risk.
Q10: The nurse observes a colleague documenting care they did not provide. The nurse should:
A. Ignore it
B. Do the same
C. Keep it confidential
D. Report the falsified documentation to the supervisor [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Falsified documentation is a serious legal/ethical violation that must be reported. Ignoring or participating is unacceptable.
Q11: When a fire is discovered, the nurse's first priority is to:
A. Call family
B. Remove clients from immediate danger (RACE) [CORRECT]
C. Document
D. Gather belongings
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The RACE acronym prioritizes Rescue/Remove clients first, then Alarm, Contain, and Extinguish. Client safety is the
priority.
Q12: A client with a new diagnosis asks for a second opinion. The nurse should:
A. Support the client's right to seek a second opinion [CORRECT]
B. Discourage it
C. Refuse to discuss it
D. Ignore the request
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Clients have the right to seek a second opinion. The nurse should support client autonomy and informed decision-making.
Q13: Which of the following is a primary responsibility of the RN in delegation?
A. Determining the competency of the delegate and providing supervision [CORRECT]
B. Delegating all tasks to unlicensed staff
C. Avoiding all supervision
NGN RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment - 2026/2027 Page 3
COMPREHENSIVE ASSESSMENT - PRACTICE TEST
2026/2027 EDITION
This is an independent practice assessment for educational study; it is not an official ATI Testing proctored assessment.
Section Overview
This comprehensive proctored practice assessment contains 180 questions across eight sections, aligned with the
ATI Capstone Comprehensive blueprint, the current NCLEX-RN test plan, NGN item types, and evidence-based
nursing practice for 2026/2027.
Sec Topic Qs
1 Management of Care - Safety, Delegation, Legal/Ethical, Case Management 30
2 Health Promotion & Maintenance - Development, Prenatal, Screening 20
3 Psychosocial Integrity - Mental Health, Coping, Communication 20
4 Basic Care & Comfort - Hygiene, Nutrition, Mobility, Pain 15
5 Pharmacological & Parenteral Therapies - Medications, IV, Blood 30
6 Reduction of Risk Potential - Diagnostics, Vitals, Labs, Complications 25
7 Physiological Adaptation - Fluid/Electrolytes, Pathophysiology, Acute/Chronic 25
8 NGN-Style Case Studies - Unfolding Client Scenarios 15
TOTAL 180
Instructions
For each question, select the single best answer. Use the answer key at the end of the assessment to check your work.
Each item includes a brief rationale explaining the correct response. The NGN-style section presents unfolding client
scenarios as separate items.
Answer Key Distribution: 45 A · 45 B · 45 C · 45 D
, Section 1: Management of Care - Safety, Delegation, Legal/Ethical, Case Management
Q1: The nurse is delegating vital sign measurement to a UAP. Which task can the UAP appropriately perform?
A. Administering IV medications
B. Assessing a client's new chest pain
C. Measuring routine vital signs on a stable client [CORRECT]
D. Formulating a nursing diagnosis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: UAPs can measure routine vital signs on stable clients. IV administration, assessment, and diagnosis require a licensed
nurse.
Q2: Which task can be appropriately delegated to an LPN?
A. Administering oral medications to a stable client [CORRECT]
B. Initial assessment of a new admission
C. Evaluating a client's response to treatment
D. Developing the plan of care
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: LPNs can administer medications and perform routine tasks under supervision. Initial assessment, evaluation, and plan
development are RN responsibilities.
Q3: A client with a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order arrests. The nurse should:
A. Begin CPR immediately
B. Provide comfort care as directed and not initiate resuscitation [CORRECT]
C. Call family first
D. Ignore the DNR
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A valid DNR order means no resuscitation should be initiated; the nurse provides comfort/end-of-life care per the order.
Resuscitation would violate the order.
Q4: The nurse is prioritizing care for four clients. Which client should the nurse see first?
A. A client requesting a snack
B. A client due for routine dressing change
C. A client with new-onset chest pain and diaphoresis [CORRECT]
D. A client who wants discharge papers
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: New chest pain with diaphoresis suggests a potential cardiac emergency and takes priority using ABCs. The others are
lower-acuity.
Q5: Which action demonstrates client advocacy?
A. Following orders without question
B. Withholding information from the client
C. Prioritizing the family over the client
D. Speaking up when a client's stated wishes are not being followed [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Advocacy means supporting the client's rights and wishes, including speaking up when they are not honored. The other
actions are not advocacy.
Q6: The nurse is assessing a client's advance directive. Which statement is true regarding advance directives?
A. They are only for clients near death
B. They remove the need for informed consent
C. They document the client's wishes regarding care if they become unable to decide [CORRECT]
D. They are legally binding on all treatments
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Advance directives document a client's treatment wishes if they lose decision-making capacity. They are not limited to
terminal clients or the end of informed consent.
NGN RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment - 2026/2027 Page 2
, Q7: A nurse identifies a potential medication error before it reaches the client. This best reflects which quality
improvement concept?
A. A sentinel event
B. A never event
C. An adverse event
D. A near-miss or close call that should be reported for prevention [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Catching an error before it reaches the client is a near-miss, which should be reported and analyzed to prevent future
errors. The other terms describe events that occur.
Q8: The nurse is providing handoff report using SBAR. What does the 'R' stand for?
A. Reason
B. Reassess
C. Recommendation [CORRECT]
D. Response
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: SBAR = Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation. 'R' is Recommendation.
Q9: Which client is at highest risk for falls?
A. A young client in good health
B. A client who is fully mobile
C. A client who refuses assistance but is stable
D. An older adult who is unsteady and on a new sedative [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: An unsteady older adult on a sedative is at high fall risk due to age, mobility, and medication effects. The others are lower
risk.
Q10: The nurse observes a colleague documenting care they did not provide. The nurse should:
A. Ignore it
B. Do the same
C. Keep it confidential
D. Report the falsified documentation to the supervisor [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Falsified documentation is a serious legal/ethical violation that must be reported. Ignoring or participating is unacceptable.
Q11: When a fire is discovered, the nurse's first priority is to:
A. Call family
B. Remove clients from immediate danger (RACE) [CORRECT]
C. Document
D. Gather belongings
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The RACE acronym prioritizes Rescue/Remove clients first, then Alarm, Contain, and Extinguish. Client safety is the
priority.
Q12: A client with a new diagnosis asks for a second opinion. The nurse should:
A. Support the client's right to seek a second opinion [CORRECT]
B. Discourage it
C. Refuse to discuss it
D. Ignore the request
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Clients have the right to seek a second opinion. The nurse should support client autonomy and informed decision-making.
Q13: Which of the following is a primary responsibility of the RN in delegation?
A. Determining the competency of the delegate and providing supervision [CORRECT]
B. Delegating all tasks to unlicensed staff
C. Avoiding all supervision
NGN RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment - 2026/2027 Page 3
