ATI MED SURG IMMUNE & INFECTION,
ATI MED SURG ONCOLOGY, ATI MED
SURG CARDIOVASCULAR NEWEST
2025/2026 ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE
200+ QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) | ALREADY GRADED A+ | |
BRAND NEW!!
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a male client who reports a thick urethral discharge.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A) Contact the client's sexual partners.
B) Obtain a urethral specimen for culture.
C) Prepare to administer penicillin to the client.
D) Obtain blood for a rapid plasma reagin test.
E) Instruct the client to increase fluid intake.
Correct Answer: B) Obtain a urethral specimen for culture.
Rationale: The nursing process dictates that assessment and data
collection must occur before intervention. Obtaining a urethral specimen
for culture and sensitivity is necessary to identify the specific causative
organism (such as Neisseria gonorrhoeae or Chlamydia trachomatis) to
ensure the client receives the appropriate antibiotic therapy. Contacting
partners (Option A) and administering medication (Option C) are
,secondary to confirming the diagnosis. While an RPR (Option D)
screens for syphilis, it does not diagnose the cause of urethral discharge.
Question 2
A home health nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving
chemotherapy and has neutropenia. Which of the following foods should
the nurse include in the client's plan of care?
A) Soft-boiled eggs
B) Brie cheese made with unpasteurized milk
C) Cold deli-meat sandwiches
D) Baked chicken
E) Fresh-pressed raw vegetable juice
Correct Answer: D) Baked chicken.
Rationale: Neutropenic precautions (a low-microbial diet) are essential
for clients with low white blood cell counts to prevent infection. Baked
chicken is thoroughly cooked, which kills potential pathogens. Soft-
boiled eggs (Option A) may contain Salmonella if the yolk is runny.
Unpasteurized dairy (Option B), cold deli meats (Option C), and raw
vegetables (Option E) carry a high risk of harboring bacteria such as
Listeria or E. coli, which can be fatal for an immunocompromised client.
Question 3
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who reports
bilateral pain and swelling in her finger joints, with stiffness in the
,morning. The nurse should recognize that an increase in which of the
following laboratory values can indicate rheumatoid arthritis?
A) Reticulocyte count
B) Rheumatoid factor
C) Direct Coombs' test
D) Platelet count
E) Serum amylase
Correct Answer: B) Rheumatoid factor.
Rationale: Rheumatoid factor (RF) is an antibody present in most
clients who have rheumatoid arthritis (RA). While not 100% specific, an
elevated RF level, combined with clinical symptoms like symmetrical
joint pain and morning stiffness, supports the diagnosis. Reticulocyte
count (Option A) measures bone marrow activity; Direct Coombs'
(Option C) is for hemolytic anemia; Platelet count (Option D) relates to
clotting; and Serum amylase (Option E) is a marker for pancreatitis.
Question 4
A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a male client who is being
treated for genital warts (HPV). Which of the following statements
indicates that the client understands how to prevent the transmission of
this sexually transmitted infection (STI)?
A) "I will bring my sexual partner for treatment."
B) "Now that I've had my first dose of medicine, I can resume sexual
activity."
C) "Once I have been treated, I don't have to use condoms anymore."
D) "Once treatment is complete and I am free of symptoms, I don't have
to return to the clinic."
E) "The warts are only contagious when I can see them."
Correct Answer: A) "I will bring my sexual partner for treatment."
, Rationale: Genital warts are caused by the Human Papillomavirus
(HPV). Partners should be examined and treated because the virus can
be transmitted even when no visible warts are present. Condoms (Option
C) reduce but do not eliminate the risk, as the virus can be on skin not
covered by the condom. HPV is a chronic virus; therefore, completing
treatment (Option D) does not mean the virus is gone. Asymptomatic
shedding (Option E) is a common route of transmission.
Question 5
A nurse is teaching a client who has AIDS about the transmission of
Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PCP). Which of the following pieces
of information should the nurse include in the teaching?
A) "PCP is sexually transmitted from person to person."
B) "You were most likely exposed to a contaminated surface such as a
drinking glass."
C) "PCP results from an impaired immune system."
D) "You might have contracted PCP from a family pet."
E) "PCP is caused by a virus that is highly contagious to healthy adults."
Correct Answer: C) "PCP results from an impaired immune
system."
Rationale: Pneumocystis jirovecii is an opportunistic fungal infection. It
is found in the environment and does not cause disease in individuals
with a healthy immune system. In clients with AIDS (especially those
with a CD4+ count below 200), the weakened immune system allows
the organism to cause pneumonia. PCP is not considered an STI (Option
A) and is not typically spread from pets (Option D) or contaminated
surfaces (Option B).
ATI MED SURG ONCOLOGY, ATI MED
SURG CARDIOVASCULAR NEWEST
2025/2026 ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE
200+ QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) | ALREADY GRADED A+ | |
BRAND NEW!!
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a male client who reports a thick urethral discharge.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A) Contact the client's sexual partners.
B) Obtain a urethral specimen for culture.
C) Prepare to administer penicillin to the client.
D) Obtain blood for a rapid plasma reagin test.
E) Instruct the client to increase fluid intake.
Correct Answer: B) Obtain a urethral specimen for culture.
Rationale: The nursing process dictates that assessment and data
collection must occur before intervention. Obtaining a urethral specimen
for culture and sensitivity is necessary to identify the specific causative
organism (such as Neisseria gonorrhoeae or Chlamydia trachomatis) to
ensure the client receives the appropriate antibiotic therapy. Contacting
partners (Option A) and administering medication (Option C) are
,secondary to confirming the diagnosis. While an RPR (Option D)
screens for syphilis, it does not diagnose the cause of urethral discharge.
Question 2
A home health nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving
chemotherapy and has neutropenia. Which of the following foods should
the nurse include in the client's plan of care?
A) Soft-boiled eggs
B) Brie cheese made with unpasteurized milk
C) Cold deli-meat sandwiches
D) Baked chicken
E) Fresh-pressed raw vegetable juice
Correct Answer: D) Baked chicken.
Rationale: Neutropenic precautions (a low-microbial diet) are essential
for clients with low white blood cell counts to prevent infection. Baked
chicken is thoroughly cooked, which kills potential pathogens. Soft-
boiled eggs (Option A) may contain Salmonella if the yolk is runny.
Unpasteurized dairy (Option B), cold deli meats (Option C), and raw
vegetables (Option E) carry a high risk of harboring bacteria such as
Listeria or E. coli, which can be fatal for an immunocompromised client.
Question 3
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who reports
bilateral pain and swelling in her finger joints, with stiffness in the
,morning. The nurse should recognize that an increase in which of the
following laboratory values can indicate rheumatoid arthritis?
A) Reticulocyte count
B) Rheumatoid factor
C) Direct Coombs' test
D) Platelet count
E) Serum amylase
Correct Answer: B) Rheumatoid factor.
Rationale: Rheumatoid factor (RF) is an antibody present in most
clients who have rheumatoid arthritis (RA). While not 100% specific, an
elevated RF level, combined with clinical symptoms like symmetrical
joint pain and morning stiffness, supports the diagnosis. Reticulocyte
count (Option A) measures bone marrow activity; Direct Coombs'
(Option C) is for hemolytic anemia; Platelet count (Option D) relates to
clotting; and Serum amylase (Option E) is a marker for pancreatitis.
Question 4
A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a male client who is being
treated for genital warts (HPV). Which of the following statements
indicates that the client understands how to prevent the transmission of
this sexually transmitted infection (STI)?
A) "I will bring my sexual partner for treatment."
B) "Now that I've had my first dose of medicine, I can resume sexual
activity."
C) "Once I have been treated, I don't have to use condoms anymore."
D) "Once treatment is complete and I am free of symptoms, I don't have
to return to the clinic."
E) "The warts are only contagious when I can see them."
Correct Answer: A) "I will bring my sexual partner for treatment."
, Rationale: Genital warts are caused by the Human Papillomavirus
(HPV). Partners should be examined and treated because the virus can
be transmitted even when no visible warts are present. Condoms (Option
C) reduce but do not eliminate the risk, as the virus can be on skin not
covered by the condom. HPV is a chronic virus; therefore, completing
treatment (Option D) does not mean the virus is gone. Asymptomatic
shedding (Option E) is a common route of transmission.
Question 5
A nurse is teaching a client who has AIDS about the transmission of
Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PCP). Which of the following pieces
of information should the nurse include in the teaching?
A) "PCP is sexually transmitted from person to person."
B) "You were most likely exposed to a contaminated surface such as a
drinking glass."
C) "PCP results from an impaired immune system."
D) "You might have contracted PCP from a family pet."
E) "PCP is caused by a virus that is highly contagious to healthy adults."
Correct Answer: C) "PCP results from an impaired immune
system."
Rationale: Pneumocystis jirovecii is an opportunistic fungal infection. It
is found in the environment and does not cause disease in individuals
with a healthy immune system. In clients with AIDS (especially those
with a CD4+ count below 200), the weakened immune system allows
the organism to cause pneumonia. PCP is not considered an STI (Option
A) and is not typically spread from pets (Option D) or contaminated
surfaces (Option B).
