Exams 1–3 & Study Guide) for NSG 552
Psychopharmacology Complete Exam Bundle |
Wilkes University
Q1. A nurse practitioner explains to a patient that "what
the body does to the drug" is known as:
A. Pharmacodynamics
B. Pharmacokinetics
C. Pharmacotherapeutics
D. Pharmacogenomics
Answer: B. Pharmacokinetics
Rationale: Pharmacokinetics describes the processes of
absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion
(ADME)—what the body does to the drug.
Pharmacodynamics is what the drug does to the body.
Q2. The opening of which ion channel is primarily
responsible for initiating an action potential?
1
,A. Potassium channels
B. Calcium channels
C. Sodium channels
D. Chloride channels
Answer: C. Sodium channels
Rationale: Voltage-gated sodium channels open, allowing
sodium influx and depolarization of the neuron, which
initiates the action potential. Potassium channels then open
for repolarization.
Q3. Which neurotransmitter is the primary inhibitory
neurotransmitter in the central nervous system?
A. Glutamate
B. Dopamine
C. GABA
D. Norepinephrine
Answer: C. GABA
2
,Rationale: GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid) is the main
inhibitory neurotransmitter, reducing neuronal excitability.
Glutamate is the primary excitatory neurotransmitter.
Q4. A patient asks how an antidepressant works. The NP
explains that the study of drug-receptor interactions and
the drug's effects on the body is called:
A. Pharmacokinetics
B. Pharmacodynamics
C. Bioavailability
D. First-pass metabolism
Answer: B. Pharmacodynamics
Rationale: Pharmacodynamics is the study of what the
drug does to the body—including receptor binding,
mechanism of action, and therapeutic/adverse effects.
Q5. Which dopamine pathway is associated with the
positive symptoms of schizophrenia when hyperactive?
3
, A. Nigrostriatal pathway
B. Mesolimbic pathway
C. Mesocortical pathway
D. Tuberoinfundibular pathway
Answer: B. Mesolimbic pathway
Rationale: The mesolimbic pathway (ventral tegmental
area to nucleus accumbens) is associated with reward and
psychosis. Hyperactivity here produces positive symptoms
(hallucinations, delusions).
Q6. A patient on long-term antipsychotic therapy
develops involuntary lip smacking and tongue protrusion.
This is most likely:
A. Acute dystonia
B. Akathisia
C. Parkinsonism
D. Tardive dyskinesia
Answer: D. Tardive dyskinesia
4
Psychopharmacology Complete Exam Bundle |
Wilkes University
Q1. A nurse practitioner explains to a patient that "what
the body does to the drug" is known as:
A. Pharmacodynamics
B. Pharmacokinetics
C. Pharmacotherapeutics
D. Pharmacogenomics
Answer: B. Pharmacokinetics
Rationale: Pharmacokinetics describes the processes of
absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion
(ADME)—what the body does to the drug.
Pharmacodynamics is what the drug does to the body.
Q2. The opening of which ion channel is primarily
responsible for initiating an action potential?
1
,A. Potassium channels
B. Calcium channels
C. Sodium channels
D. Chloride channels
Answer: C. Sodium channels
Rationale: Voltage-gated sodium channels open, allowing
sodium influx and depolarization of the neuron, which
initiates the action potential. Potassium channels then open
for repolarization.
Q3. Which neurotransmitter is the primary inhibitory
neurotransmitter in the central nervous system?
A. Glutamate
B. Dopamine
C. GABA
D. Norepinephrine
Answer: C. GABA
2
,Rationale: GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid) is the main
inhibitory neurotransmitter, reducing neuronal excitability.
Glutamate is the primary excitatory neurotransmitter.
Q4. A patient asks how an antidepressant works. The NP
explains that the study of drug-receptor interactions and
the drug's effects on the body is called:
A. Pharmacokinetics
B. Pharmacodynamics
C. Bioavailability
D. First-pass metabolism
Answer: B. Pharmacodynamics
Rationale: Pharmacodynamics is the study of what the
drug does to the body—including receptor binding,
mechanism of action, and therapeutic/adverse effects.
Q5. Which dopamine pathway is associated with the
positive symptoms of schizophrenia when hyperactive?
3
, A. Nigrostriatal pathway
B. Mesolimbic pathway
C. Mesocortical pathway
D. Tuberoinfundibular pathway
Answer: B. Mesolimbic pathway
Rationale: The mesolimbic pathway (ventral tegmental
area to nucleus accumbens) is associated with reward and
psychosis. Hyperactivity here produces positive symptoms
(hallucinations, delusions).
Q6. A patient on long-term antipsychotic therapy
develops involuntary lip smacking and tongue protrusion.
This is most likely:
A. Acute dystonia
B. Akathisia
C. Parkinsonism
D. Tardive dyskinesia
Answer: D. Tardive dyskinesia
4
