NR 603 CEA EXAM / APPROVED NR 603 CEA FINAL EXAM
2026/2027 TESTBANK COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE QUESTIONS
AND STUDY GUIDE ACCURATE EXAM COMPLETE REAL
QUESTIONS WITH WELL ELABORATED SOLUTIONS AND
DETAILED RATIONALES (RELIABLE ANSWERS) LATEST
UPDATED VERSION 2026 EDITION |GUARANTEED PASS A+ |JUST
RELEASED
Question 1
A 58-year-old male with hypertension presents to the ED with
substernal chest pressure radiating to his left arm, accompanied by
diaphoresis and nausea. What is the most appropriate initial
diagnostic test?
A) Chest X-ray
B) 12-lead ECG
C) Cardiac troponin level
D) Stress echocardiogram
CORRECT ANSWER: B) 12-lead ECG
Rationale: The 12-lead ECG should be obtained within 10 minutes
of arrival for any patient with chest pain suspicious for myocardial
infarction. It immediately identifies ST-elevation MI (STEMI),
which requires urgent reperfusion therapy. While troponin is
essential, it can take hours to rise; the ECG provides immediate,
actionable information.
,Question 2
Which cardiac biomarker is the most specific for myocardial
infarction?
A) CK-MB
B) BNP
C) Troponin I
D) D-dimer
CORRECT ANSWER: C) Troponin I
Rationale: Cardiac troponins I and T are the most specific
biomarkers for myocardial injury. Troponin I is not normally found
in the blood of healthy individuals and rises within 3-4 hours of
myocardial necrosis. Troponin is the preferred biomarker for
diagnosing MI due to its high cardiac specificity and sensitivity.
Question 3
A 45-year-old man presents with substernal chest pain that worsens
when lying supine and improves when sitting forward. He has a low-
grade fever and a pericardial friction rub on auscultation. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
A) Acute myocardial infarction
B) Pericarditis
,C) Aortic dissection
D) Pulmonary embolism
CORRECT ANSWER: B) Pericarditis
Rationale: Acute pericarditis classically presents with sharp, pleuritic
chest pain that is positional—worse when lying flat and improved by
sitting forward. ECG often shows diffuse ST-segment elevation
(concave upward) and PR-segment depression. A pericardial friction
rub is a hallmark physical finding.
Question 4
A patient presents with sudden onset of severe, tearing chest pain
that radiates to his back. He has a blood pressure of 160/50 mmHg
in the right arm and 110/70 mmHg in the left arm. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A) Acute myocardial infarction
B) Pulmonary embolism
C) Aortic dissection
D) Pericarditis
CORRECT ANSWER: C) Aortic dissection
, Rationale: Aortic dissection classically presents with sudden, severe,
"tearing" chest or back pain with a blood pressure differential
between arms. This is a life-threatening emergency requiring
immediate CT angiography for diagnosis.
Question 5
A patient with new-onset atrial fibrillation and a CHA₂DS₂-VASc
score of 4 should be treated with:
A) Aspirin 81 mg daily
B) Clopidogrel
C) Oral anticoagulation (warfarin or DOAC)
D) No anticoagulation needed
CORRECT ANSWER: C) Oral anticoagulation (warfarin or
DOAC)
Rationale: Patients with CHA₂DS₂-VASc score ≥2 in men or ≥3 in
women should receive oral anticoagulation. Aspirin alone is
insufficient for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation patients at
elevated risk.
Question 6
According to JNC 8 guidelines, hypertension in African American
patients is best treated with:
2026/2027 TESTBANK COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE QUESTIONS
AND STUDY GUIDE ACCURATE EXAM COMPLETE REAL
QUESTIONS WITH WELL ELABORATED SOLUTIONS AND
DETAILED RATIONALES (RELIABLE ANSWERS) LATEST
UPDATED VERSION 2026 EDITION |GUARANTEED PASS A+ |JUST
RELEASED
Question 1
A 58-year-old male with hypertension presents to the ED with
substernal chest pressure radiating to his left arm, accompanied by
diaphoresis and nausea. What is the most appropriate initial
diagnostic test?
A) Chest X-ray
B) 12-lead ECG
C) Cardiac troponin level
D) Stress echocardiogram
CORRECT ANSWER: B) 12-lead ECG
Rationale: The 12-lead ECG should be obtained within 10 minutes
of arrival for any patient with chest pain suspicious for myocardial
infarction. It immediately identifies ST-elevation MI (STEMI),
which requires urgent reperfusion therapy. While troponin is
essential, it can take hours to rise; the ECG provides immediate,
actionable information.
,Question 2
Which cardiac biomarker is the most specific for myocardial
infarction?
A) CK-MB
B) BNP
C) Troponin I
D) D-dimer
CORRECT ANSWER: C) Troponin I
Rationale: Cardiac troponins I and T are the most specific
biomarkers for myocardial injury. Troponin I is not normally found
in the blood of healthy individuals and rises within 3-4 hours of
myocardial necrosis. Troponin is the preferred biomarker for
diagnosing MI due to its high cardiac specificity and sensitivity.
Question 3
A 45-year-old man presents with substernal chest pain that worsens
when lying supine and improves when sitting forward. He has a low-
grade fever and a pericardial friction rub on auscultation. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
A) Acute myocardial infarction
B) Pericarditis
,C) Aortic dissection
D) Pulmonary embolism
CORRECT ANSWER: B) Pericarditis
Rationale: Acute pericarditis classically presents with sharp, pleuritic
chest pain that is positional—worse when lying flat and improved by
sitting forward. ECG often shows diffuse ST-segment elevation
(concave upward) and PR-segment depression. A pericardial friction
rub is a hallmark physical finding.
Question 4
A patient presents with sudden onset of severe, tearing chest pain
that radiates to his back. He has a blood pressure of 160/50 mmHg
in the right arm and 110/70 mmHg in the left arm. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A) Acute myocardial infarction
B) Pulmonary embolism
C) Aortic dissection
D) Pericarditis
CORRECT ANSWER: C) Aortic dissection
, Rationale: Aortic dissection classically presents with sudden, severe,
"tearing" chest or back pain with a blood pressure differential
between arms. This is a life-threatening emergency requiring
immediate CT angiography for diagnosis.
Question 5
A patient with new-onset atrial fibrillation and a CHA₂DS₂-VASc
score of 4 should be treated with:
A) Aspirin 81 mg daily
B) Clopidogrel
C) Oral anticoagulation (warfarin or DOAC)
D) No anticoagulation needed
CORRECT ANSWER: C) Oral anticoagulation (warfarin or
DOAC)
Rationale: Patients with CHA₂DS₂-VASc score ≥2 in men or ≥3 in
women should receive oral anticoagulation. Aspirin alone is
insufficient for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation patients at
elevated risk.
Question 6
According to JNC 8 guidelines, hypertension in African American
patients is best treated with:
