NSG 2610 EXAM 2 | VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS WITH RATIONALE |
LATEST UPDATE 2026/2027 | GRADED A+
1. A 46-year-old service-counter worker undergoes sclerotherapy for treatment
of superficial varicose veins at an outpatient center. Which of the following
instructions should the nurse reinforce with the client before discharge?
• A) "You should apply elastic compression stockings before getting out of
bed in the morning."
• B) "You should apply elastic compression stockings after you have been up
and about for an hour."
• C) "You should remove the compression stockings at night and reapply
them in the morning."
• D) "Elastic compression stockings are only necessary if you experience
pain."
Correct Answer: A)
Rationale: Sclerotherapy involves injecting a solution into the varicose vein to
cause it to collapse and scar, rerouting blood to healthier veins. Compression
stockings are essential post-procedure to maintain pressure on the treated veins,
promote healing, and prevent blood from re-entering the collapsed vein. They are
most effective when applied before the patient gets out of bed in the morning, as
this prevents venous pooling and distention that occurs when the legs are in a
dependent position.
2. The nurse is planning to administer Coumadin 1mg by mouth to patient JB.
Which lab value should she question?
• A) INR 2
, • B) INR 3.5
• C) INR 1.5
• D) INR 0.8
Correct Answer: D)
Rationale: Coumadin (warfarin) is an anticoagulant whose therapeutic effect is
monitored by the International Normalized Ratio (INR). For most indications (like
atrial fibrillation or VTE treatment), a therapeutic INR range is typically between
2.0 and 3.0. An INR of 0.8 indicates that the patient's blood is not yet within a
therapeutic, anticoagulated range. Administering the medication is appropriate to
increase the INR, not a reason to question the order. Questioning the order would
be appropriate if the INR was critically high (e.g., >5.0).
3. Your client with heart failure is reporting fatigue, significant lower extremity
swelling, and more recently has noticed her abdomen seems large and swollen.
As the nurse, you understand that your client is experiencing worsening
symptoms of which of the following conditions?
• A) Left-sided heart failure
• B) Right-sided heart failure
• C) Pericarditis
• D) Cardiogenic shock
Correct Answer: B)
Rationale: Right-sided heart failure occurs when the right ventricle fails to pump
blood effectively to the lungs. This leads to a backup of blood in the systemic
venous system. The resulting increased hydrostatic pressure causes fluid to leak
into interstitial spaces, manifesting as dependent edema (swelling in the lower
extremities), ascites (a swollen abdomen), and jugular venous distention. Fatigue
is a common symptom of heart failure as a whole, but the peripheral and
abdominal swelling are classic signs of right-sided failure.
,4. A client is being discharged home on Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) for
treatment of hypertension. Which of the following statements by the patient
indicates they understood your discharge teaching about this medication?
• A) "I will make sure I consume foods high in potassium."
• B) "I will avoid consuming foods high in potassium."
• C) "I will take this medication right before I go to bed."
• D) "I can stop taking this medication if my blood pressure feels normal."
Correct Answer: A)
Rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) is a thiazide diuretic. It promotes sodium
and water excretion, but it also causes potassium to be lost in the urine, a side
effect known as hypokalemia. To prevent hypokalemia, patients should be
educated to consume a diet rich in potassium (e.g., bananas, oranges, potatoes).
Options B, C, and D are incorrect: potassium intake should be increased, the
medication is best taken in the morning to prevent nocturia, and it must be taken
daily as prescribed, not on an "as-needed" basis.
5. The nurse understands that the best way to assess circulation and perfusion
after a left heart catheterization with right femoral artery catheter access is:
• A) Dorsalis pedis pulses bilaterally
• B) Radial pulses bilaterally
• C) Femoral pulses bilaterally
• D) Apical pulse
Correct Answer: A)
Rationale: After a left heart catheterization via the femoral artery, the primary
complication is bleeding or hematoma formation at the access site. To assess for
arterial compromise distal to the puncture site, the nurse must assess the
peripheral pulses in the affected extremity (the leg). The dorsalis pedis and
, posterior tibial pulses are the most distal pulses in the foot. Comparing these
pulses bilaterally allows the nurse to assess for any decrease in perfusion to the
affected leg, which could indicate an occlusive clot or compression from a
hematoma.
6. When caring for a client with mitral valve stenosis, it is most important that
the nurse assess for?
• A) Shortness of breath on exertion.
• B) Peripheral edema.
• C) Jugular venous distention.
• D) A bounding pulse.
Correct Answer: A)
Rationale: Mitral valve stenosis involves a narrowing of the mitral valve, which
obstructs blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle. This obstruction
causes a backup of blood into the pulmonary circulation, leading to increased
pulmonary pressure and pulmonary congestion. The hallmark and earliest
symptom of this congestion is dyspnea on exertion. While peripheral edema and
JVD can occur in severe, long-standing cases, they are signs of subsequent right-
sided heart failure and are not the most immediate or important assessment
finding.
7. A nurse is reviewing an ECG of a client who states angina symptoms started
more than 24 hours ago. After reviewing the ECG pictured below, the nurse
anticipates the client is suffering from which disorder?
(Note: The ECG picture is not provided, but based on the context of the question...)
• A) Stable Angina
• B) Myocardial Infarct
• C) Prinzmetal's Angina
CORRECT ANSWERS WITH RATIONALE |
LATEST UPDATE 2026/2027 | GRADED A+
1. A 46-year-old service-counter worker undergoes sclerotherapy for treatment
of superficial varicose veins at an outpatient center. Which of the following
instructions should the nurse reinforce with the client before discharge?
• A) "You should apply elastic compression stockings before getting out of
bed in the morning."
• B) "You should apply elastic compression stockings after you have been up
and about for an hour."
• C) "You should remove the compression stockings at night and reapply
them in the morning."
• D) "Elastic compression stockings are only necessary if you experience
pain."
Correct Answer: A)
Rationale: Sclerotherapy involves injecting a solution into the varicose vein to
cause it to collapse and scar, rerouting blood to healthier veins. Compression
stockings are essential post-procedure to maintain pressure on the treated veins,
promote healing, and prevent blood from re-entering the collapsed vein. They are
most effective when applied before the patient gets out of bed in the morning, as
this prevents venous pooling and distention that occurs when the legs are in a
dependent position.
2. The nurse is planning to administer Coumadin 1mg by mouth to patient JB.
Which lab value should she question?
• A) INR 2
, • B) INR 3.5
• C) INR 1.5
• D) INR 0.8
Correct Answer: D)
Rationale: Coumadin (warfarin) is an anticoagulant whose therapeutic effect is
monitored by the International Normalized Ratio (INR). For most indications (like
atrial fibrillation or VTE treatment), a therapeutic INR range is typically between
2.0 and 3.0. An INR of 0.8 indicates that the patient's blood is not yet within a
therapeutic, anticoagulated range. Administering the medication is appropriate to
increase the INR, not a reason to question the order. Questioning the order would
be appropriate if the INR was critically high (e.g., >5.0).
3. Your client with heart failure is reporting fatigue, significant lower extremity
swelling, and more recently has noticed her abdomen seems large and swollen.
As the nurse, you understand that your client is experiencing worsening
symptoms of which of the following conditions?
• A) Left-sided heart failure
• B) Right-sided heart failure
• C) Pericarditis
• D) Cardiogenic shock
Correct Answer: B)
Rationale: Right-sided heart failure occurs when the right ventricle fails to pump
blood effectively to the lungs. This leads to a backup of blood in the systemic
venous system. The resulting increased hydrostatic pressure causes fluid to leak
into interstitial spaces, manifesting as dependent edema (swelling in the lower
extremities), ascites (a swollen abdomen), and jugular venous distention. Fatigue
is a common symptom of heart failure as a whole, but the peripheral and
abdominal swelling are classic signs of right-sided failure.
,4. A client is being discharged home on Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) for
treatment of hypertension. Which of the following statements by the patient
indicates they understood your discharge teaching about this medication?
• A) "I will make sure I consume foods high in potassium."
• B) "I will avoid consuming foods high in potassium."
• C) "I will take this medication right before I go to bed."
• D) "I can stop taking this medication if my blood pressure feels normal."
Correct Answer: A)
Rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) is a thiazide diuretic. It promotes sodium
and water excretion, but it also causes potassium to be lost in the urine, a side
effect known as hypokalemia. To prevent hypokalemia, patients should be
educated to consume a diet rich in potassium (e.g., bananas, oranges, potatoes).
Options B, C, and D are incorrect: potassium intake should be increased, the
medication is best taken in the morning to prevent nocturia, and it must be taken
daily as prescribed, not on an "as-needed" basis.
5. The nurse understands that the best way to assess circulation and perfusion
after a left heart catheterization with right femoral artery catheter access is:
• A) Dorsalis pedis pulses bilaterally
• B) Radial pulses bilaterally
• C) Femoral pulses bilaterally
• D) Apical pulse
Correct Answer: A)
Rationale: After a left heart catheterization via the femoral artery, the primary
complication is bleeding or hematoma formation at the access site. To assess for
arterial compromise distal to the puncture site, the nurse must assess the
peripheral pulses in the affected extremity (the leg). The dorsalis pedis and
, posterior tibial pulses are the most distal pulses in the foot. Comparing these
pulses bilaterally allows the nurse to assess for any decrease in perfusion to the
affected leg, which could indicate an occlusive clot or compression from a
hematoma.
6. When caring for a client with mitral valve stenosis, it is most important that
the nurse assess for?
• A) Shortness of breath on exertion.
• B) Peripheral edema.
• C) Jugular venous distention.
• D) A bounding pulse.
Correct Answer: A)
Rationale: Mitral valve stenosis involves a narrowing of the mitral valve, which
obstructs blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle. This obstruction
causes a backup of blood into the pulmonary circulation, leading to increased
pulmonary pressure and pulmonary congestion. The hallmark and earliest
symptom of this congestion is dyspnea on exertion. While peripheral edema and
JVD can occur in severe, long-standing cases, they are signs of subsequent right-
sided heart failure and are not the most immediate or important assessment
finding.
7. A nurse is reviewing an ECG of a client who states angina symptoms started
more than 24 hours ago. After reviewing the ECG pictured below, the nurse
anticipates the client is suffering from which disorder?
(Note: The ECG picture is not provided, but based on the context of the question...)
• A) Stable Angina
• B) Myocardial Infarct
• C) Prinzmetal's Angina
