ATI RN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR EXAM
PRACTICE TEST (2026/2027 EDITION) • VERSION 2
Assessment Technologies Institute (ATI) Comprehensive Predictor Preparation
NCLEX-RN Readiness • NGN-Aligned Scenarios
180 Questions with Correct Answers & Rationale
Format: 180 multiple-choice questions (single best answer, A–D), including NGN-style
case studies.
Structure: Seven sections aligned to the ATI comprehensive / NCLEX-RN test plan.
Cognitive ~30% recall • ~50% application • ~20% analysis.
levels:
Grading: One point per question; correct answer and rationale provided after each
item.
Content basis: ATI comprehensive blueprint, current NCLEX-RN test plan, and
evidence-based nursing practice standards.
Special 10 NGN-style items (acute MI & pediatric asthma); 5 Maslow/ABC
inclusions: prioritization items; 3 therapeutic-communication & mental-health-crisis items.
Version note: This is Version 2, a fresh question set distinct from the earlier ATI
Comprehensive Predictor Exam.
Important This is an independent practice exam for educational study; it is not an official
note: ATI or NCLEX exam.
, Section 1: Management of Care – Safety, Delegation, Legal/Ethical, Case
Management (30 questions)
Q1: A nurse is caring for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client who is apneic and unresponsive [CORRECT]
B. A client requesting a snack
C. A client ready for discharge
D. A client needing a bath
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A is correct: apnea/unresponsiveness is the highest priority (ABCs). B, C, and D are lower priority.
Q2: Which task is appropriate to delegate to assistive personnel (AP)?
A. Administering IV push medication
B. Measuring a stable client's routine vital signs [CORRECT]
C. Performing the initial assessment
D. Providing discharge teaching
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A is correct: routine vital signs are within the AP scope. B, C, and D require nursing judgment.
Q3: Which task should the nurse NOT delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
A. Assisting the client to the bathroom
B. Measuring intake and output
C. Assessing a client's lung sounds [CORRECT]
D. Changing bed linens
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A is correct: assessment requires nursing judgment. B, C, and D are routine UAP tasks.
Q4: A nurse discovers a medication error was made. Which is the first action?
A. Hide the error
B. Document it as correct
C. Do nothing
D. Assess the client and notify the provider [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A is correct: assess and notify the provider. B, C, and D are unsafe.
Q5: A confused client is at risk for pulling out an IV line. Which is the least-restrictive intervention to
try first?
A. Reorientation, supervision, and diversion [CORRECT]
B. Immediate four-point restraints
C. Tying the line to the bed
D. Sedating without an order
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A is correct: use least-restrictive measures first. B, C, and D are unsafe.
Q6: Which precaution is required for a client with a draining MRSA wound?
A. Airborne precautions
B. Contact precautions [CORRECT]
C. Droplet precautions
D. No precautions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A is correct: MRSA wound drainage requires contact precautions. B, C, and D are incorrect.
ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor Exam v2 (2026/2027 Edition) Page 2
, Q7: Which client is at greatest risk for falls?
A. A fully independent young adult
B. A client with stable vital signs
C. An older adult on a sedative who ambulates at night [CORRECT]
D. An alert, oriented client
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A is correct: age, sedatives, and nighttime ambulation increase fall risk. B, C, and D are lower risk.
Q8: Which action reflects the nurse's duty as a mandated reporter?
A. Keep it confidential
B. Confront the family
C. Ignore it
D. Report suspected abuse to the appropriate authorities [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A is correct: mandated reporters must report suspected abuse. B, C, and D fail the duty.
Q9: Which is an example of a confidentiality breach?
A. Discussing a client's condition with a visitor who is not authorized [CORRECT]
B. Documenting in the medical record
C. Reporting a notifiable disease
D. Sharing with the care team
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A is correct: discussing PHI with an unauthorized person breaches confidentiality. B, C, and D are
appropriate.
Q10: Which is appropriate when a client with a DNR stops breathing?
A. Begin CPR regardless
B. Provide comfort measures and honor the DNR [CORRECT]
C. Call a code
D. Intubate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A is correct: honor a valid DNR. B, C, and D violate it.
Q11: Which is the correct PPE donning order?
A. Gloves, gown
B. Goggles before the gown
C. Gown, mask, goggles, gloves [CORRECT]
D. No order
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A is correct: gown, mask, goggles, then gloves is recommended. B, C, and D are incorrect.
Q12: Which is appropriate when a fire occurs on the unit?
A. Ignore the alarm
B. Leave clients
C. Use the elevator
D. Use RACE (Rescue, Alarm, Confine, Evacuate) [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A is correct: RACE guides fire response. B, C, and D are unsafe.
ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor Exam v2 (2026/2027 Edition) Page 3
, Q13: Which client should the nurse see first using the ABCs?
A. A client with cyanosis and stridor [CORRECT]
B. A client with a small abrasion
C. A client requesting a snack
D. A client ready for discharge
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A is correct: cyanosis and stridor indicate airway obstruction. B, C, and D are lower priority.
Q14: Which is an appropriate action to prevent aspiration during feeding?
A. Lie the client flat
B. Position the client upright at 90 degrees [CORRECT]
C. Encourage rapid eating
D. Give thin liquids without assessment
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A is correct: upright positioning reduces aspiration risk. B, C, and D increase risk.
Q15: Which is appropriate when a patient is restrained?
A. Leave the restraint on
B. No assessment
C. Assess frequently, release, and document [CORRECT]
D. Skip documentation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A is correct: assess, release, and document. B, C, and D are unsafe.
Q16: Which best describes informed consent?
A. The nurse obtains it
B. It is optional
C. The unit clerk obtains it
D. The provider performing the procedure obtains it [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A is correct: the provider performing the procedure obtains consent. B, C, and D are incorrect.
Q17: Which is appropriate when a client refuses care and is competent?
A. Respect the refusal and document it [CORRECT]
B. Force care
C. Leave without documentation
D. Ignore it
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A is correct: respect and document a valid refusal. B, C, and D are incorrect.
Q18: Which is appropriate when the nurse suspects a coworker is stealing medication?
A. Ignore it
B. Report to the charge nurse or authority [CORRECT]
C. Confront and do nothing
D. Ask to share
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A is correct: report suspected diversion. B, C, and D are improper.
ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor Exam v2 (2026/2027 Edition) Page 4
PRACTICE TEST (2026/2027 EDITION) • VERSION 2
Assessment Technologies Institute (ATI) Comprehensive Predictor Preparation
NCLEX-RN Readiness • NGN-Aligned Scenarios
180 Questions with Correct Answers & Rationale
Format: 180 multiple-choice questions (single best answer, A–D), including NGN-style
case studies.
Structure: Seven sections aligned to the ATI comprehensive / NCLEX-RN test plan.
Cognitive ~30% recall • ~50% application • ~20% analysis.
levels:
Grading: One point per question; correct answer and rationale provided after each
item.
Content basis: ATI comprehensive blueprint, current NCLEX-RN test plan, and
evidence-based nursing practice standards.
Special 10 NGN-style items (acute MI & pediatric asthma); 5 Maslow/ABC
inclusions: prioritization items; 3 therapeutic-communication & mental-health-crisis items.
Version note: This is Version 2, a fresh question set distinct from the earlier ATI
Comprehensive Predictor Exam.
Important This is an independent practice exam for educational study; it is not an official
note: ATI or NCLEX exam.
, Section 1: Management of Care – Safety, Delegation, Legal/Ethical, Case
Management (30 questions)
Q1: A nurse is caring for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client who is apneic and unresponsive [CORRECT]
B. A client requesting a snack
C. A client ready for discharge
D. A client needing a bath
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A is correct: apnea/unresponsiveness is the highest priority (ABCs). B, C, and D are lower priority.
Q2: Which task is appropriate to delegate to assistive personnel (AP)?
A. Administering IV push medication
B. Measuring a stable client's routine vital signs [CORRECT]
C. Performing the initial assessment
D. Providing discharge teaching
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A is correct: routine vital signs are within the AP scope. B, C, and D require nursing judgment.
Q3: Which task should the nurse NOT delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
A. Assisting the client to the bathroom
B. Measuring intake and output
C. Assessing a client's lung sounds [CORRECT]
D. Changing bed linens
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A is correct: assessment requires nursing judgment. B, C, and D are routine UAP tasks.
Q4: A nurse discovers a medication error was made. Which is the first action?
A. Hide the error
B. Document it as correct
C. Do nothing
D. Assess the client and notify the provider [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A is correct: assess and notify the provider. B, C, and D are unsafe.
Q5: A confused client is at risk for pulling out an IV line. Which is the least-restrictive intervention to
try first?
A. Reorientation, supervision, and diversion [CORRECT]
B. Immediate four-point restraints
C. Tying the line to the bed
D. Sedating without an order
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A is correct: use least-restrictive measures first. B, C, and D are unsafe.
Q6: Which precaution is required for a client with a draining MRSA wound?
A. Airborne precautions
B. Contact precautions [CORRECT]
C. Droplet precautions
D. No precautions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A is correct: MRSA wound drainage requires contact precautions. B, C, and D are incorrect.
ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor Exam v2 (2026/2027 Edition) Page 2
, Q7: Which client is at greatest risk for falls?
A. A fully independent young adult
B. A client with stable vital signs
C. An older adult on a sedative who ambulates at night [CORRECT]
D. An alert, oriented client
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A is correct: age, sedatives, and nighttime ambulation increase fall risk. B, C, and D are lower risk.
Q8: Which action reflects the nurse's duty as a mandated reporter?
A. Keep it confidential
B. Confront the family
C. Ignore it
D. Report suspected abuse to the appropriate authorities [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A is correct: mandated reporters must report suspected abuse. B, C, and D fail the duty.
Q9: Which is an example of a confidentiality breach?
A. Discussing a client's condition with a visitor who is not authorized [CORRECT]
B. Documenting in the medical record
C. Reporting a notifiable disease
D. Sharing with the care team
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A is correct: discussing PHI with an unauthorized person breaches confidentiality. B, C, and D are
appropriate.
Q10: Which is appropriate when a client with a DNR stops breathing?
A. Begin CPR regardless
B. Provide comfort measures and honor the DNR [CORRECT]
C. Call a code
D. Intubate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A is correct: honor a valid DNR. B, C, and D violate it.
Q11: Which is the correct PPE donning order?
A. Gloves, gown
B. Goggles before the gown
C. Gown, mask, goggles, gloves [CORRECT]
D. No order
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A is correct: gown, mask, goggles, then gloves is recommended. B, C, and D are incorrect.
Q12: Which is appropriate when a fire occurs on the unit?
A. Ignore the alarm
B. Leave clients
C. Use the elevator
D. Use RACE (Rescue, Alarm, Confine, Evacuate) [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A is correct: RACE guides fire response. B, C, and D are unsafe.
ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor Exam v2 (2026/2027 Edition) Page 3
, Q13: Which client should the nurse see first using the ABCs?
A. A client with cyanosis and stridor [CORRECT]
B. A client with a small abrasion
C. A client requesting a snack
D. A client ready for discharge
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A is correct: cyanosis and stridor indicate airway obstruction. B, C, and D are lower priority.
Q14: Which is an appropriate action to prevent aspiration during feeding?
A. Lie the client flat
B. Position the client upright at 90 degrees [CORRECT]
C. Encourage rapid eating
D. Give thin liquids without assessment
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A is correct: upright positioning reduces aspiration risk. B, C, and D increase risk.
Q15: Which is appropriate when a patient is restrained?
A. Leave the restraint on
B. No assessment
C. Assess frequently, release, and document [CORRECT]
D. Skip documentation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A is correct: assess, release, and document. B, C, and D are unsafe.
Q16: Which best describes informed consent?
A. The nurse obtains it
B. It is optional
C. The unit clerk obtains it
D. The provider performing the procedure obtains it [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A is correct: the provider performing the procedure obtains consent. B, C, and D are incorrect.
Q17: Which is appropriate when a client refuses care and is competent?
A. Respect the refusal and document it [CORRECT]
B. Force care
C. Leave without documentation
D. Ignore it
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A is correct: respect and document a valid refusal. B, C, and D are incorrect.
Q18: Which is appropriate when the nurse suspects a coworker is stealing medication?
A. Ignore it
B. Report to the charge nurse or authority [CORRECT]
C. Confront and do nothing
D. Ask to share
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A is correct: report suspected diversion. B, C, and D are improper.
ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor Exam v2 (2026/2027 Edition) Page 4
