WGU D444 Adult Health 1 Objective
Assessment OA V1 & V2 Actual Exam
2026/2027 – Real-Style Exam
Questions | 100% Correct Answers |
Cardiovascular | Respira tory |
Neurological | Endocrine | Renal | GI |
Pharmacology | Detailed Rationales |
Graded A+ Verified | Pass Guaranteed –
Instant Download
Question 1
A patient with heart failure has an ejection fraction of 35%. This indicates:
A. Preserved systolic function
B. Reduced systolic function (HFrEF)
C. Normal diastolic function
D. Severe valvular disease
Correct Answer: B
,rational,: Normal ejection fraction (EF) is 55–70%. An EF of 35% indicates systolic
heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF). This means the left ventricle is
,not pumping effectively, and treatment focuses on afterload reduction, diuresis,
and inotropic support .
Question 2
A patient on amlodipine reports flushing and headache. What is the nurse's best
response?
A. "These are expected side effects that often improve with time."
B. "Stop the medication immediately and call 911."
C. "You are having an allergic reaction."
D. "This indicates your blood pressure is now normal."
Correct Answer: A
,rational,: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker that causes vasodilation,
leading to flushing, headache, and peripheral edema. These are common side
effects that often resolve as the body adjusts to the medication. The patient should
not stop the medication abruptly without consulting the provider .
Question 3
A patient with unstable angina is prescribed clopidogrel. Which teaching point is
most important?
A. "Take with grapefruit juice to increase absorption."
B. "Notify the provider if you notice black, tarry stools."
,C. "This medication will dissolve any existing clots."
D. "You will not need aspirin while taking this."
Correct Answer: B
,rational,: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that increases the risk of
bleeding. Black, tarry stools indicate gastrointestinal bleeding and should be
reported immediately. Grapefruit juice interacts with many medications, and
clopidogrel does not dissolve existing clots .
Question 4
A patient with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. Before administration, the nurse
should assess which of the following?
A. Respiratory rate
B. Apical pulse for 1 full minute
C. Blood pressure
D. Temperature
Correct Answer: B
,rational,: Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic range and can cause bradycardia and
dysrhythmias. The apical pulse should be assessed for a full minute before
administration. The medication is held if the pulse is below 60 bpm (or as ordered
by the provider) .
Question 5
, A patient with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. The nurse should monitor for
which potential adverse effect?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypomagnesemia
Correct Answer: A
,rational,: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause hyperkalemia by reducing
aldosterone secretion, leading to decreased potassium excretion. Patients should
have potassium levels monitored regularly .
Question 6
Which electrocardiogram (EKG) finding is most consistent with a myocardial
infarction?
A. ST-segment elevation
B. Prolonged PR interval
C. Widened QRS complex
D. Flattened T waves
Correct Answer: A
,rational,: ST-segment elevation is a hallmark finding of acute myocardial infarction
(STEMI). It indicates transmural ischemia and requires immediate intervention.
Prolonged PR interval is associated with first-degree heart block .
Assessment OA V1 & V2 Actual Exam
2026/2027 – Real-Style Exam
Questions | 100% Correct Answers |
Cardiovascular | Respira tory |
Neurological | Endocrine | Renal | GI |
Pharmacology | Detailed Rationales |
Graded A+ Verified | Pass Guaranteed –
Instant Download
Question 1
A patient with heart failure has an ejection fraction of 35%. This indicates:
A. Preserved systolic function
B. Reduced systolic function (HFrEF)
C. Normal diastolic function
D. Severe valvular disease
Correct Answer: B
,rational,: Normal ejection fraction (EF) is 55–70%. An EF of 35% indicates systolic
heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF). This means the left ventricle is
,not pumping effectively, and treatment focuses on afterload reduction, diuresis,
and inotropic support .
Question 2
A patient on amlodipine reports flushing and headache. What is the nurse's best
response?
A. "These are expected side effects that often improve with time."
B. "Stop the medication immediately and call 911."
C. "You are having an allergic reaction."
D. "This indicates your blood pressure is now normal."
Correct Answer: A
,rational,: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker that causes vasodilation,
leading to flushing, headache, and peripheral edema. These are common side
effects that often resolve as the body adjusts to the medication. The patient should
not stop the medication abruptly without consulting the provider .
Question 3
A patient with unstable angina is prescribed clopidogrel. Which teaching point is
most important?
A. "Take with grapefruit juice to increase absorption."
B. "Notify the provider if you notice black, tarry stools."
,C. "This medication will dissolve any existing clots."
D. "You will not need aspirin while taking this."
Correct Answer: B
,rational,: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that increases the risk of
bleeding. Black, tarry stools indicate gastrointestinal bleeding and should be
reported immediately. Grapefruit juice interacts with many medications, and
clopidogrel does not dissolve existing clots .
Question 4
A patient with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. Before administration, the nurse
should assess which of the following?
A. Respiratory rate
B. Apical pulse for 1 full minute
C. Blood pressure
D. Temperature
Correct Answer: B
,rational,: Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic range and can cause bradycardia and
dysrhythmias. The apical pulse should be assessed for a full minute before
administration. The medication is held if the pulse is below 60 bpm (or as ordered
by the provider) .
Question 5
, A patient with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. The nurse should monitor for
which potential adverse effect?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypomagnesemia
Correct Answer: A
,rational,: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause hyperkalemia by reducing
aldosterone secretion, leading to decreased potassium excretion. Patients should
have potassium levels monitored regularly .
Question 6
Which electrocardiogram (EKG) finding is most consistent with a myocardial
infarction?
A. ST-segment elevation
B. Prolonged PR interval
C. Widened QRS complex
D. Flattened T waves
Correct Answer: A
,rational,: ST-segment elevation is a hallmark finding of acute myocardial infarction
(STEMI). It indicates transmural ischemia and requires immediate intervention.
Prolonged PR interval is associated with first-degree heart block .
