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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2026 Exit Exam Study Guide and Practice Test Comprehensive 150 Question Practice Exam with Detailed Rationales

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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2026 Exit Exam Study Guide and Practice Test Comprehensive 150 Question Practice Exam with Detailed Rationales

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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor
2026 Exit Exam Study Guide and
Practice Test Comprehensive 150-
Question Practice Exam with Detailed
Rationales


SECTION 1: SAFE & EFFECTIVE CARE ENVIRONMENT
1. A practical nurse is caring for a client who has been placed in wrist restraints
after less restrictive measures failed. Which of the following actions is the priority
for the PN to take?

A) Document the client's behavior every 4 hours
B) Obtain a written provider's order within 24 hours
C) Remove the restraints every 2 hours to perform range-of-motion exercises
D) Ensure the restraints are tied to the bed frame with a quick-release knot

Answer: C

Rationale: The priority action is to remove restraints every 2 hours to assess skin
integrity, provide range-of-motion exercises, and meet elimination and hydration needs.
Restraints must have a provider's order obtained within 1 hour (not 24 hours) of
application, and they should be tied to the bed frame with a quick-release knot for
safety. Documentation should occur every 1-2 hours, not every 4 hours.




2. A PN is reinforcing teaching with a client about advance directives. Which
statement by the client indicates understanding?

,A) "Advance directives are only for older adults."
B) "I can change my advance directives at any time."
C) "Once signed, advance directives cannot be changed."
D) "A lawyer must create my advance directives."

Answer: B

Rationale: Clients can modify or revoke advance directives at any time as long as they
are competent. Advance directives are for any adult, not just older adults, and do not
require a lawyer to create them.




3. A PN enters a client's room and finds a small fire in the trash can. Which of the
following actions should the PN take first?

A) Pull the fire alarm
B) Remove the client from the room
C) Attempt to extinguish the fire with a fire extinguisher
D) Close the door to contain the fire

Answer: B

Rationale: According to the RACE protocol, the first action is to Rescue anyone in
immediate danger by removing the client from the room. Only after ensuring client
safety should the PN activate the alarm (A), contain the fire (C), and extinguish if safe to
do so (E).




4. A PN is caring for a client who is agitated and attempting to remove IV lines.
Which action should the PN take first?

A) Apply wrist restraints
B) Call the provider for a sedative order
C) Assign a staff member to stay with the client
D) Dim the lights to calm the client

Answer: C

,Rationale: The least restrictive intervention should be attempted first. Assigning a staff
member to stay with the client provides supervision and may prevent the need for
restraints. Restraints should only be used as a last resort after less restrictive measures
have failed.




5. A PN is preparing to administer medications to a client. Which of the following
actions is most important for the PN to take to prevent medication errors?

A) Check the client's identification band
B) Ask the client to state their name and date of birth
C) Use two client identifiers before administration
D) Verify the medication with another nurse

Answer: C

Rationale: Using two client identifiers (e.g., name and date of birth) is the standard of
care to ensure the right client receives the right medication. This is a fundamental safety
practice that must be performed before every medication administration.




6. A client on a medical-surgical unit has a prescription for a continuous enteral
tube feeding. Which of the following actions should the PN take to reduce the risk
of aspiration?

A) Position the client supine during feeding
B) Keep the head of the bed elevated at 30 to 45 degrees
C) Flush the tube with 50 mL of water after each feeding
D) Check residual volumes every 12 hours

Answer: B

Rationale: Keeping the head of the bed elevated at 30 to 45 degrees during enteral
feedings reduces the risk of aspiration by preventing reflux of gastric contents into the
esophagus and pharynx.

, 7. A PN is reinforcing teaching with a client about HIPAA privacy protections.
Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding?

A) "My medical records can be shared with my employer without my permission."
B) "I have the right to request a copy of my medical records."
C) "My family can access my records without my consent."
D) "My healthcare provider does not need my permission to share my information with
the pharmacy."

Answer: B

Rationale: Under HIPAA, clients have the right to access, request copies of, and request
amendments to their medical records. Employers cannot access records without client
authorization, and family members cannot access records without client consent.




8. A PN is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client who has a new prescription
for home oxygen therapy. Which of the following statements by the client
indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "I will post 'No Smoking' signs in my home."
B) "I can use petroleum-based products on my lips."
C) "I will keep oxygen cylinders upright and secured."
D) "I should avoid using electrical equipment near the oxygen."

Answer: B

Rationale: Petroleum-based products (e.g., Vaseline) are flammable and should not be
used near oxygen sources. The client should use water-based lubricants instead. All
other statements reflect correct understanding of home oxygen safety.




9. A PN is caring for a client who has a surgical wound. Which of the following
findings should the PN report to the provider immediately?

A) Serosanguineous drainage on the dressing
B) Wound edges that are approximated

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