Galen NUR 210 / NUR210 Exam 4 | 2026/2027
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
Principles of Pharmacology
2026/2027 Official Exam
Undergraduate nursing pharmacology examination covering drug classifications,
mechanisms, and nursing considerations.
A+ Verified Edition: 2026/2027 Passing Score: 80%
COVER PAGE - 1
,SECTIONS COVERED
Section 1: Basic Pharmacology Principles (Pharmacokinetics & Pharmacodynamics)
Section 2: Cardiovascular, Renal, and Fluid/Electrolyte Medications
Section 3: Neurological, Psychiatric, and Analgesic Medications
Section 4: Antimicrobials, Anti-infectives, and Immunological Agents
Section 5: Endocrine, Respiratory, GI, and Special Populations
This examination assesses undergraduate nursing knowledge of pharmacology principles, including drug
classifications, mechanisms of action, pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, adverse effects, drug
interactions, and nursing considerations. Each question presents a clinical scenario requiring application
and analysis of pharmacological concepts.
Instructions:
1. Read each question carefully before selecting your answer.
2. Select the ONE best answer for each question.
3. Each question is worth 1 mark. Total marks: 50.
4. Passing score: 80% (40 correct answers required).
5. The correct answer and rationale are provided for each question in this study edition.
SECTION 1: Basic Pharmacology Principles (Pharmacokinetics & Pharmacodynamics)
Q1
A 68-year-old patient with heart failure is prescribed digoxin 0.25 mg daily. The nurse reviews the patient's
laboratory results and notes a serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. The patient complains of nausea and
reports seeing yellow halos around lights. Which assessment finding should the nurse prioritize?
Monitor for bradycardia and notify the provider immediately
Encourage the patient to eat potassium-rich foods
Document the visual changes and reassess in 4 hours
Hold the next dose and schedule a trough drug level
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, manifested by nausea and visual disturbances. Bradycardia is a
life-threatening sign of toxicity requiring immediate intervention. The best wrong answer (holding the next dose) is
appropriate but less urgent than addressing the bradycardia.
, Q2
A patient receiving intravenous vancomycin develops a red, flushing rash on the face and neck during the
infusion. The nurse recognizes this as Red Man Syndrome. What is the most appropriate immediate
nursing intervention?
Slow the infusion rate and monitor the patient closely
Discontinue the infusion and initiate anaphylaxis protocol
Administer diphenhydramine and continue the infusion
Document the reaction and notify the provider after the dose completes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Red Man Syndrome is a rate-related histamine release reaction, not a true allergy. Slowing the infusion rate alleviates
symptoms. The best wrong answer (discontinuing and initiating anaphylaxis protocol) overreacts, as this is not anaphylaxis.
Q3
A patient with a penicillin allergy is prescribed ciprofloxacin 500 mg orally twice daily for a urinary tract
infection. The nurse provides discharge instructions. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for
further teaching?
I will take my medication with an antacid 30 minutes before each dose
I will avoid dairy products and calcium-fortified juices around the time I take this antibiotic
I will drink plenty of water while taking this medication
I will wear sunscreen because this medication can make me sensitive to sunlight
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Antacids containing aluminum, magnesium, or calcium bind fluoroquinolones and reduce absorption. The patient should not
take antacids before ciprofloxacin. The best wrong answer (avoiding dairy) is actually correct patient teaching.
Q4
A patient with hypertension is started on lisinopril. The nurse reviews the patient's medication history and
notes the patient also takes spironolactone and ibuprofen regularly. Which laboratory value should the
nurse monitor most closely?
Serum potassium level
Serum sodium level
Blood glucose level
Liver enzyme levels
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Lisinopril (ACE inhibitor) and spironolactone (potassium-sparing diuretic) both increase potassium. NSAIDs like ibuprofen
further reduce renal potassium excretion. Hyperkalemia is a significant risk. The best wrong answer (sodium) is less critical
in this combination.
Galen NUR 210 / NUR210 Exam 4 | 2026/2027 | Principles of Pharmacology
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
Principles of Pharmacology
2026/2027 Official Exam
Undergraduate nursing pharmacology examination covering drug classifications,
mechanisms, and nursing considerations.
A+ Verified Edition: 2026/2027 Passing Score: 80%
COVER PAGE - 1
,SECTIONS COVERED
Section 1: Basic Pharmacology Principles (Pharmacokinetics & Pharmacodynamics)
Section 2: Cardiovascular, Renal, and Fluid/Electrolyte Medications
Section 3: Neurological, Psychiatric, and Analgesic Medications
Section 4: Antimicrobials, Anti-infectives, and Immunological Agents
Section 5: Endocrine, Respiratory, GI, and Special Populations
This examination assesses undergraduate nursing knowledge of pharmacology principles, including drug
classifications, mechanisms of action, pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, adverse effects, drug
interactions, and nursing considerations. Each question presents a clinical scenario requiring application
and analysis of pharmacological concepts.
Instructions:
1. Read each question carefully before selecting your answer.
2. Select the ONE best answer for each question.
3. Each question is worth 1 mark. Total marks: 50.
4. Passing score: 80% (40 correct answers required).
5. The correct answer and rationale are provided for each question in this study edition.
SECTION 1: Basic Pharmacology Principles (Pharmacokinetics & Pharmacodynamics)
Q1
A 68-year-old patient with heart failure is prescribed digoxin 0.25 mg daily. The nurse reviews the patient's
laboratory results and notes a serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. The patient complains of nausea and
reports seeing yellow halos around lights. Which assessment finding should the nurse prioritize?
Monitor for bradycardia and notify the provider immediately
Encourage the patient to eat potassium-rich foods
Document the visual changes and reassess in 4 hours
Hold the next dose and schedule a trough drug level
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, manifested by nausea and visual disturbances. Bradycardia is a
life-threatening sign of toxicity requiring immediate intervention. The best wrong answer (holding the next dose) is
appropriate but less urgent than addressing the bradycardia.
, Q2
A patient receiving intravenous vancomycin develops a red, flushing rash on the face and neck during the
infusion. The nurse recognizes this as Red Man Syndrome. What is the most appropriate immediate
nursing intervention?
Slow the infusion rate and monitor the patient closely
Discontinue the infusion and initiate anaphylaxis protocol
Administer diphenhydramine and continue the infusion
Document the reaction and notify the provider after the dose completes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Red Man Syndrome is a rate-related histamine release reaction, not a true allergy. Slowing the infusion rate alleviates
symptoms. The best wrong answer (discontinuing and initiating anaphylaxis protocol) overreacts, as this is not anaphylaxis.
Q3
A patient with a penicillin allergy is prescribed ciprofloxacin 500 mg orally twice daily for a urinary tract
infection. The nurse provides discharge instructions. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for
further teaching?
I will take my medication with an antacid 30 minutes before each dose
I will avoid dairy products and calcium-fortified juices around the time I take this antibiotic
I will drink plenty of water while taking this medication
I will wear sunscreen because this medication can make me sensitive to sunlight
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Antacids containing aluminum, magnesium, or calcium bind fluoroquinolones and reduce absorption. The patient should not
take antacids before ciprofloxacin. The best wrong answer (avoiding dairy) is actually correct patient teaching.
Q4
A patient with hypertension is started on lisinopril. The nurse reviews the patient's medication history and
notes the patient also takes spironolactone and ibuprofen regularly. Which laboratory value should the
nurse monitor most closely?
Serum potassium level
Serum sodium level
Blood glucose level
Liver enzyme levels
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Lisinopril (ACE inhibitor) and spironolactone (potassium-sparing diuretic) both increase potassium. NSAIDs like ibuprofen
further reduce renal potassium excretion. Hyperkalemia is a significant risk. The best wrong answer (sodium) is less critical
in this combination.
Galen NUR 210 / NUR210 Exam 4 | 2026/2027 | Principles of Pharmacology
