2026-2027 CJE MATERNITY/MATERNITY CJE EXAM FULLY
REVISED EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS A NEW UPDATED VERSION LATEST 2026-2027
(100% CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS) MOST RECENT
EXAM ALREADY GRADED A+
A 32-year-old primigravida at 38 weeks gestation presents with a blood
pressure of 150/92 mmHg and 2+ proteinuria. She reports a severe headache
and visual disturbances. What is the priority nursing intervention?
A) Administer oral labetalol
B) Prepare for immediate cesarean section
C) Initiate a magnesium sulfate infusion
D) Encourage oral hydration
Answer: C.
Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice to prevent seizures in severe
preeclampsia with features of impending eclampsia. The headache and visual
changes indicate cerebral irritation, making seizure prophylaxis urgent. Oral
labetalol is not appropriate for acute severe hypertension. Immediate cesarean
is not indicated without fetal distress or other complications. Hydration could
worsen fluid overload in preeclampsia.
,A patient in active labor has a fetal heart rate tracing showing recurrent late
decelerations. The nurse’s immediate action should be to:
A) Increase the IV fluid rate
B) Administer oxygen via non-rebreather mask
C) Position the patient on her left side
D) Notify the provider for an amnioinfusion
Answer: C.
Left lateral positioning improves uteroplacental perfusion by relieving
aortocaval compression, which is the first-line intervention for late
decelerations. While oxygen and fluids may be used, repositioning is the
immediate priority. Amnioinfusion is for variable decelerations.
A postpartum patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis reports sudden
onset of chest pain and shortness of breath. What is the most important initial
nursing action?
A) Administer a therapeutic dose of enoxaparin
B) Obtain a STAT electrocardiogram
C) Place the patient in a high-Fowler’s position and apply oxygen
D) Prepare for an emergency echocardiogram
Answer: C.
Suspected pulmonary embolism requires immediate stabilization of breathing
and oxygenation. High-Fowler’s position and oxygen are priorities.
Anticoagulation and diagnostic tests follow after stabilizing the airway and
breathing.
,Which finding in a term newborn at 12 hours of life requires immediate
notification of the healthcare provider?
A) Heart rate of 160 beats per minute
B) Respiratory rate of 70 breaths per minute
C) Acrocyanosis of the hands and feet
D) A single café-au-lait spot on the abdomen
Answer: B.
A respiratory rate of 70 breaths/min in a term newborn is tachypneic and may
indicate respiratory distress, infection, or cardiac anomaly. Normal heart rate
is 110–160 bpm. Acrocyanosis is normal in the first 24 hours. A single café-au-
lait spot is benign.
A pregnant patient at 41 weeks gestation is undergoing a biophysical profile
(BPP). Which component of the BPP is most indicative of chronic fetal
hypoxia?
A) Fetal breathing movements
B) Fetal tone
C) Amniotic fluid volume
D) Non-stress test reactivity
Answer: C.
Amniotic fluid volume reflects long-term fetal renal perfusion and is most
sensitive to chronic hypoxia. Decreased volume suggests redistribution of
blood flow to vital organs. The other parameters are acute markers.
A nurse is caring for a patient with placenta previa. Which assessment finding
is most concerning?
A) Painless bright red vaginal bleeding
, B) Intermittent lower abdominal pain
C) Fetal heart rate of 140 beats per minute
D) Maternal heart rate of 90 beats per minute
Answer: A.
Painless bright red bleeding is the hallmark of placenta previa and can be
massive, leading to hemorrhage and shock. Pain suggests abruption. The fetal
and maternal heart rates are within normal limits.
A newborn has Apgar scores of 6 at 1 minute and 8 at 5 minutes. Which
intervention is appropriate at 1 minute?
A) No intervention, continue routine care
B) Provide tactile stimulation and blow-by oxygen
C) Begin positive pressure ventilation
D) Prepare for endotracheal intubation
Answer: B.
An Apgar score of 6 indicates moderate depression requiring stimulation and
oxygen. Routine care is for scores 7-10. Positive pressure is for scores 0-3.
Intubation is for severe depression or failed ventilation.
A patient at 36 weeks gestation with gestational diabetes is scheduled for a
non-stress test (NST). Which result is considered reactive?
A) Two accelerations of 15 beats per minute lasting 15 seconds in 20 minutes
B) One acceleration of 20 beats per minute lasting 10 seconds in 30 minutes
C) No accelerations but a baseline rate of 130 beats per minute
D) Three accelerations of 10 beats per minute lasting 15 seconds in 30 minutes
Answer: A.
REVISED EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS A NEW UPDATED VERSION LATEST 2026-2027
(100% CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS) MOST RECENT
EXAM ALREADY GRADED A+
A 32-year-old primigravida at 38 weeks gestation presents with a blood
pressure of 150/92 mmHg and 2+ proteinuria. She reports a severe headache
and visual disturbances. What is the priority nursing intervention?
A) Administer oral labetalol
B) Prepare for immediate cesarean section
C) Initiate a magnesium sulfate infusion
D) Encourage oral hydration
Answer: C.
Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice to prevent seizures in severe
preeclampsia with features of impending eclampsia. The headache and visual
changes indicate cerebral irritation, making seizure prophylaxis urgent. Oral
labetalol is not appropriate for acute severe hypertension. Immediate cesarean
is not indicated without fetal distress or other complications. Hydration could
worsen fluid overload in preeclampsia.
,A patient in active labor has a fetal heart rate tracing showing recurrent late
decelerations. The nurse’s immediate action should be to:
A) Increase the IV fluid rate
B) Administer oxygen via non-rebreather mask
C) Position the patient on her left side
D) Notify the provider for an amnioinfusion
Answer: C.
Left lateral positioning improves uteroplacental perfusion by relieving
aortocaval compression, which is the first-line intervention for late
decelerations. While oxygen and fluids may be used, repositioning is the
immediate priority. Amnioinfusion is for variable decelerations.
A postpartum patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis reports sudden
onset of chest pain and shortness of breath. What is the most important initial
nursing action?
A) Administer a therapeutic dose of enoxaparin
B) Obtain a STAT electrocardiogram
C) Place the patient in a high-Fowler’s position and apply oxygen
D) Prepare for an emergency echocardiogram
Answer: C.
Suspected pulmonary embolism requires immediate stabilization of breathing
and oxygenation. High-Fowler’s position and oxygen are priorities.
Anticoagulation and diagnostic tests follow after stabilizing the airway and
breathing.
,Which finding in a term newborn at 12 hours of life requires immediate
notification of the healthcare provider?
A) Heart rate of 160 beats per minute
B) Respiratory rate of 70 breaths per minute
C) Acrocyanosis of the hands and feet
D) A single café-au-lait spot on the abdomen
Answer: B.
A respiratory rate of 70 breaths/min in a term newborn is tachypneic and may
indicate respiratory distress, infection, or cardiac anomaly. Normal heart rate
is 110–160 bpm. Acrocyanosis is normal in the first 24 hours. A single café-au-
lait spot is benign.
A pregnant patient at 41 weeks gestation is undergoing a biophysical profile
(BPP). Which component of the BPP is most indicative of chronic fetal
hypoxia?
A) Fetal breathing movements
B) Fetal tone
C) Amniotic fluid volume
D) Non-stress test reactivity
Answer: C.
Amniotic fluid volume reflects long-term fetal renal perfusion and is most
sensitive to chronic hypoxia. Decreased volume suggests redistribution of
blood flow to vital organs. The other parameters are acute markers.
A nurse is caring for a patient with placenta previa. Which assessment finding
is most concerning?
A) Painless bright red vaginal bleeding
, B) Intermittent lower abdominal pain
C) Fetal heart rate of 140 beats per minute
D) Maternal heart rate of 90 beats per minute
Answer: A.
Painless bright red bleeding is the hallmark of placenta previa and can be
massive, leading to hemorrhage and shock. Pain suggests abruption. The fetal
and maternal heart rates are within normal limits.
A newborn has Apgar scores of 6 at 1 minute and 8 at 5 minutes. Which
intervention is appropriate at 1 minute?
A) No intervention, continue routine care
B) Provide tactile stimulation and blow-by oxygen
C) Begin positive pressure ventilation
D) Prepare for endotracheal intubation
Answer: B.
An Apgar score of 6 indicates moderate depression requiring stimulation and
oxygen. Routine care is for scores 7-10. Positive pressure is for scores 0-3.
Intubation is for severe depression or failed ventilation.
A patient at 36 weeks gestation with gestational diabetes is scheduled for a
non-stress test (NST). Which result is considered reactive?
A) Two accelerations of 15 beats per minute lasting 15 seconds in 20 minutes
B) One acceleration of 20 beats per minute lasting 10 seconds in 30 minutes
C) No accelerations but a baseline rate of 130 beats per minute
D) Three accelerations of 10 beats per minute lasting 15 seconds in 30 minutes
Answer: A.
