The Complete Stan Mucinic NAB
NHA Exam Prep 200 Practice
Questions with Answers &
Rationales Most Recent [Graded A+]
1. Under OBRA '87, a comprehensive baseline care plan for a newly
admitted resident must be completed within how many days of
admission?
• a) 48 hours
• b) 7 days (CORRECT)
• c) 14 days
• d) 21 days
Rationale: While the MDS assessment must be completed by day
14, the baseline care plan must be completed within 7 days of
admission. The comprehensive care plan is then finalized within 7
days after the MDS is completed.
2. A resident with dementia repeatedly wanders into restricted
areas. Staff apply a bed alarm without obtaining consent. Which
resident right is most violated?
• a) Right to privacy
• b) Freedom from chemical restraints
• c) Freedom from physical restraints (CORRECT)
• d) Right to refuse treatment
Rationale: A bed alarm used to restrict a resident's freedom of
movement is considered a physical restraint. Using it without
consent violates the resident's right to be free from physical
restraints.
,3. Under the Patient-Driven Payment Model (PDPM), a resident's
payment is primarily driven by:
• a) RUG-IV group and therapy minutes
• b) Clinical category, comorbidities, and functional
score (CORRECT)
• c) Length of stay only
• d) ADL score from Section G
Rationale: PDPM moved away from therapy minutes.
Reimbursement is now based on the resident's primary clinical
category, Non-Therapy Ancillary (NTA) comorbidities, and
functional scores.
4. An employee requests 12 weeks of unpaid leave for a serious
health condition. Under which federal law must the administrator
approve this if eligibility requirements are met?
• a) ADA
• b) FLSA
• c) FMLA (CORRECT)
• d) OSHA
Rationale: The Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA) entitles
eligible employees to 12 weeks of unpaid, job-protected leave per
year for serious health conditions.
5. What is the maximum time frame for completing the Minimum
Data Set (MDS) comprehensive assessment after a resident's
admission?
• a) 7 days
• b) 14 days (CORRECT)
, • c) 21 days
• d) 30 days
Rationale: Federal regulations require that the comprehensive
MDS assessment be completed within 14 days of admission.
6. Which federal law first established residents' rights in nursing
homes?
• a) Affordable Care Act (ACA)
• b) Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1987 (OBRA
'87) (CORRECT)
• c) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
• d) Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)
Rationale: OBRA '87 is the landmark legislation that first
established and codified the fundamental rights of residents in
long-term care facilities.
7. The care plan for a resident with pressure ulcers should include all
of the following EXCEPT:
• a) Nutritional interventions
• b) Repositioning schedule
• c) Staff convenience preferences (CORRECT)
• d) Wound care protocols
Rationale: Care plans must be individualized to the resident's
clinical needs. "Staff convenience" is not a valid, person-centered
reason for any care plan intervention.
8. Under PDPM, the Interdisciplinary Team (IDT) assessment must
be completed by which day of admission?
, • a) Day 1
• b) Day 5
• c) Day 7
• d) Day 14 (CORRECT)
Rationale: The IDT assessment, which includes the MDS, must be
completed by day 14 to determine the resident's PDPM
classification.
9. A resident is incontinent of urine. Which approach aligns with
person-centered care?
• a) Apply an adult brief immediately
• b) Implement a scheduled toileting program and assess
underlying causes (CORRECT)
• c) Restrict fluid intake
• d) Ignore the issue to avoid embarrassment
Rationale: Person-centered care focuses on identifying and
treating the underlying cause (e.g., UTI, mobility issues) rather than
using a "quick fix" like briefs, which can be dehumanizing.
10. Which activity is the responsibility of the resident council?
• a) Managing facility finances
• b) Advocating for resident preferences regarding meals and
activities (CORRECT)
• c) Hiring staff
• d) Setting facility policies
Rationale: The resident council represents the collective voice of
residents to advocate for their preferences on daily life issues
(menus, activity schedules, etc.).
NHA Exam Prep 200 Practice
Questions with Answers &
Rationales Most Recent [Graded A+]
1. Under OBRA '87, a comprehensive baseline care plan for a newly
admitted resident must be completed within how many days of
admission?
• a) 48 hours
• b) 7 days (CORRECT)
• c) 14 days
• d) 21 days
Rationale: While the MDS assessment must be completed by day
14, the baseline care plan must be completed within 7 days of
admission. The comprehensive care plan is then finalized within 7
days after the MDS is completed.
2. A resident with dementia repeatedly wanders into restricted
areas. Staff apply a bed alarm without obtaining consent. Which
resident right is most violated?
• a) Right to privacy
• b) Freedom from chemical restraints
• c) Freedom from physical restraints (CORRECT)
• d) Right to refuse treatment
Rationale: A bed alarm used to restrict a resident's freedom of
movement is considered a physical restraint. Using it without
consent violates the resident's right to be free from physical
restraints.
,3. Under the Patient-Driven Payment Model (PDPM), a resident's
payment is primarily driven by:
• a) RUG-IV group and therapy minutes
• b) Clinical category, comorbidities, and functional
score (CORRECT)
• c) Length of stay only
• d) ADL score from Section G
Rationale: PDPM moved away from therapy minutes.
Reimbursement is now based on the resident's primary clinical
category, Non-Therapy Ancillary (NTA) comorbidities, and
functional scores.
4. An employee requests 12 weeks of unpaid leave for a serious
health condition. Under which federal law must the administrator
approve this if eligibility requirements are met?
• a) ADA
• b) FLSA
• c) FMLA (CORRECT)
• d) OSHA
Rationale: The Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA) entitles
eligible employees to 12 weeks of unpaid, job-protected leave per
year for serious health conditions.
5. What is the maximum time frame for completing the Minimum
Data Set (MDS) comprehensive assessment after a resident's
admission?
• a) 7 days
• b) 14 days (CORRECT)
, • c) 21 days
• d) 30 days
Rationale: Federal regulations require that the comprehensive
MDS assessment be completed within 14 days of admission.
6. Which federal law first established residents' rights in nursing
homes?
• a) Affordable Care Act (ACA)
• b) Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1987 (OBRA
'87) (CORRECT)
• c) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
• d) Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)
Rationale: OBRA '87 is the landmark legislation that first
established and codified the fundamental rights of residents in
long-term care facilities.
7. The care plan for a resident with pressure ulcers should include all
of the following EXCEPT:
• a) Nutritional interventions
• b) Repositioning schedule
• c) Staff convenience preferences (CORRECT)
• d) Wound care protocols
Rationale: Care plans must be individualized to the resident's
clinical needs. "Staff convenience" is not a valid, person-centered
reason for any care plan intervention.
8. Under PDPM, the Interdisciplinary Team (IDT) assessment must
be completed by which day of admission?
, • a) Day 1
• b) Day 5
• c) Day 7
• d) Day 14 (CORRECT)
Rationale: The IDT assessment, which includes the MDS, must be
completed by day 14 to determine the resident's PDPM
classification.
9. A resident is incontinent of urine. Which approach aligns with
person-centered care?
• a) Apply an adult brief immediately
• b) Implement a scheduled toileting program and assess
underlying causes (CORRECT)
• c) Restrict fluid intake
• d) Ignore the issue to avoid embarrassment
Rationale: Person-centered care focuses on identifying and
treating the underlying cause (e.g., UTI, mobility issues) rather than
using a "quick fix" like briefs, which can be dehumanizing.
10. Which activity is the responsibility of the resident council?
• a) Managing facility finances
• b) Advocating for resident preferences regarding meals and
activities (CORRECT)
• c) Hiring staff
• d) Setting facility policies
Rationale: The resident council represents the collective voice of
residents to advocate for their preferences on daily life issues
(menus, activity schedules, etc.).
