, NUR 2474 Pharmacology for Professional
Nursing Exam V1 Questions and Answers
with Rationale 2026/2027
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with heart failure who is
prescribed digoxin. Which clinical finding should the nurse
identify as a priority manifestation of digitalis toxicity?
A. Serum potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L
B. Apical heart rate of 54 beats per minute
C. Blood pressure of 124/76 mm Hg
D. Mild peripheral edema of the lower extremities
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Digoxin exhibits a negative chronotropic effect,
slowing the heart rate. An apical pulse below 60 beats per
minute in an adult client indicates potential digitalis toxicity or
excessive negative chronotropy, requiring the nurse to withhold
the dose and notify the healthcare provider. Normal serum
potassium and blood pressure values do not indicate toxicity.
Question 2
Which medication order should the nurse question immediately
for a client admitted with an acute asthma exacerbation?
A. Albuterol metered-dose inhaler
B. Intravenous methylprednisolone
, C. Propranolol oral tablet
D. Oxygen via nasal cannula at 3 L/min
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Propranolol is a nonselective beta-blocker that
blocks both beta-1 and beta-2 adrenergic receptors. Blocking
beta-2 receptors in the lungs causes profound
bronchoconstriction, which can precipitate a life-threatening
asthma attack. Therefore, nonselective beta-blockers are
contraindicated in clients with reactive airway disease.
Question 3
A client is prescribed warfarin following treatment for a deep
vein thrombosis. What is the most critical instruction the nurse
should provide regarding dietary intake?
A. "You must completely eliminate all green leafy
vegetables from your daily diet."
B. "Maintain a consistent daily intake of foods rich in
vitamin K and avoid sudden dietary fluctuations."
C. "Increase your intake of high-vitamin K foods whenever
your INR level drops below target range."
D. "Dietary vitamin K has no clinical interaction with oral
anticoagulant medications."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Vitamin K serves as the antidote for warfarin by
promoting the synthesis of clotting factors. Patients do not need
to avoid vitamin K entirely, but maintaining a consistent, steady
daily intake is essential. Sudden changes in vitamin K
, consumption will alter the International Normalized Ratio
(INR), leading to subtherapeutic or toxic therapeutic states.
Question 4
A nurse is preparing to administer morning medications to a
client with type 1 diabetes who is prescribed regular insulin and
insulin glargine. How should the nurse administer the insulin
glargine?
A. Subcutaneously once daily at the exact same time every
day
B. Intravenously via continuous infusion pump with regular
insulin
C. Subcutaneously 15 minutes before each meal and at
bedtime
D. Only when pre-prandial blood glucose levels exceed 200
mg/dL
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Insulin glargine is a long-acting, peakless basal
insulin designed to provide a steady level of insulin over 24
hours. To maintain consistent systemic coverage and prevent
overlap or gaps, it must be administered subcutaneously once
daily at the exact same time every day.
Question 5
A client prescribed lisinopril reports experiencing a persistent,
dry, hacking cough. What is the underlying mechanism
responsible for this adverse effect?
Nursing Exam V1 Questions and Answers
with Rationale 2026/2027
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with heart failure who is
prescribed digoxin. Which clinical finding should the nurse
identify as a priority manifestation of digitalis toxicity?
A. Serum potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L
B. Apical heart rate of 54 beats per minute
C. Blood pressure of 124/76 mm Hg
D. Mild peripheral edema of the lower extremities
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Digoxin exhibits a negative chronotropic effect,
slowing the heart rate. An apical pulse below 60 beats per
minute in an adult client indicates potential digitalis toxicity or
excessive negative chronotropy, requiring the nurse to withhold
the dose and notify the healthcare provider. Normal serum
potassium and blood pressure values do not indicate toxicity.
Question 2
Which medication order should the nurse question immediately
for a client admitted with an acute asthma exacerbation?
A. Albuterol metered-dose inhaler
B. Intravenous methylprednisolone
, C. Propranolol oral tablet
D. Oxygen via nasal cannula at 3 L/min
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Propranolol is a nonselective beta-blocker that
blocks both beta-1 and beta-2 adrenergic receptors. Blocking
beta-2 receptors in the lungs causes profound
bronchoconstriction, which can precipitate a life-threatening
asthma attack. Therefore, nonselective beta-blockers are
contraindicated in clients with reactive airway disease.
Question 3
A client is prescribed warfarin following treatment for a deep
vein thrombosis. What is the most critical instruction the nurse
should provide regarding dietary intake?
A. "You must completely eliminate all green leafy
vegetables from your daily diet."
B. "Maintain a consistent daily intake of foods rich in
vitamin K and avoid sudden dietary fluctuations."
C. "Increase your intake of high-vitamin K foods whenever
your INR level drops below target range."
D. "Dietary vitamin K has no clinical interaction with oral
anticoagulant medications."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Vitamin K serves as the antidote for warfarin by
promoting the synthesis of clotting factors. Patients do not need
to avoid vitamin K entirely, but maintaining a consistent, steady
daily intake is essential. Sudden changes in vitamin K
, consumption will alter the International Normalized Ratio
(INR), leading to subtherapeutic or toxic therapeutic states.
Question 4
A nurse is preparing to administer morning medications to a
client with type 1 diabetes who is prescribed regular insulin and
insulin glargine. How should the nurse administer the insulin
glargine?
A. Subcutaneously once daily at the exact same time every
day
B. Intravenously via continuous infusion pump with regular
insulin
C. Subcutaneously 15 minutes before each meal and at
bedtime
D. Only when pre-prandial blood glucose levels exceed 200
mg/dL
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Insulin glargine is a long-acting, peakless basal
insulin designed to provide a steady level of insulin over 24
hours. To maintain consistent systemic coverage and prevent
overlap or gaps, it must be administered subcutaneously once
daily at the exact same time every day.
Question 5
A client prescribed lisinopril reports experiencing a persistent,
dry, hacking cough. What is the underlying mechanism
responsible for this adverse effect?
