NU 155 Exam 3 Medical-Surgical Nursing
I (2026) PDF | Galen
Questions and Ansẉers with
rationales 2026\2027 update
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Questions and Ansẉers
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1. A nurse is caring for a client with a history of hypertension who is
prescribed lisinopril. Which of the following findings should the
nurse recognize as an adverse effect of this medication?
A) Persistent dry cough
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Bradycardia
D) Constipation
Answer: A
Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor. A common adverse effect of
ACE inhibitors is a persistent, nonproductive dry cough, which
occurs due to the accumulation of bradykinin in the lungs.
2. A client is admitted with suspected acute myocardial infarction
(MI). Which cardiac biomarker is the most specific and reliable
indicator of myocardial damage?
A) Myoglobin
B) Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB)
C) Troponin I
D) Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
Answer: C
Rationale: Troponin I is highly specific to cardiac muscle and rises
within 3-4 hours after an MI, peaking at 10-24 hours. It remains
elevated for up to 2 weeks, making it the most reliable indicator.
3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with heart
failure. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further
teaching?
A) "I will weigh myself every morning after using the bathroom."
B) "I should call my doctor if I gain 2 pounds in a day."
C) "I can stop taking my furosemide when my swelling goes down."
D) "I will limit my salt intake by avoiding canned soups."
Answer: C
, Rationale: Clients with heart failure must take their diuretics as
prescribed and should never stop taking them without consulting
the provider, as this can lead to fluid overload and exacerbation of
heart failure.
4. A client is receiving warfarin therapy for atrial fibrillation. The
client’s INR is 5.0. Which medication should the nurse anticipate
administering?
A) Protamine sulfate
B) Vitamin K
C) Atropine
D) Acetylcysteine
Answer: B
Rationale: The therapeutic INR for atrial fibrillation is typically 2.0-
3.0. An INR of 5.0 indicates a high risk for bleeding. Vitamin K is the
antidote for warfarin toxicity.
5. A nurse is assessing a client with peripheral arterial disease
(PAD). Which of the following clinical manifestations should the
nurse expect to find?
A) Dependent rubor
B) Edema
C) Brown pigmentation of the skin
D) Warm, thickened nails
Answer: A
Rationale: PAD causes diminished arterial blood flow. Classic signs
include dependent rubor (redness when the leg is lowered),
pale/elevated legs, cool skin, thickened nails, and diminished or
absent pulses.
6. A client is scheduled for a coronary angiography. Which of the
following pre-procedure assessments is the priority for the nurse?
A) Checking for allergies to iodine or shellfish
B) Assessing the client's understanding of the procedure
I (2026) PDF | Galen
Questions and Ansẉers with
rationales 2026\2027 update
This Exam contains:
Guarantee passing score
Questions and Ansẉers
format set of multiple-choice
Expert-Verified rationales
Verified ẉith trusted textbooks
,───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
1. A nurse is caring for a client with a history of hypertension who is
prescribed lisinopril. Which of the following findings should the
nurse recognize as an adverse effect of this medication?
A) Persistent dry cough
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Bradycardia
D) Constipation
Answer: A
Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor. A common adverse effect of
ACE inhibitors is a persistent, nonproductive dry cough, which
occurs due to the accumulation of bradykinin in the lungs.
2. A client is admitted with suspected acute myocardial infarction
(MI). Which cardiac biomarker is the most specific and reliable
indicator of myocardial damage?
A) Myoglobin
B) Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB)
C) Troponin I
D) Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
Answer: C
Rationale: Troponin I is highly specific to cardiac muscle and rises
within 3-4 hours after an MI, peaking at 10-24 hours. It remains
elevated for up to 2 weeks, making it the most reliable indicator.
3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with heart
failure. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further
teaching?
A) "I will weigh myself every morning after using the bathroom."
B) "I should call my doctor if I gain 2 pounds in a day."
C) "I can stop taking my furosemide when my swelling goes down."
D) "I will limit my salt intake by avoiding canned soups."
Answer: C
, Rationale: Clients with heart failure must take their diuretics as
prescribed and should never stop taking them without consulting
the provider, as this can lead to fluid overload and exacerbation of
heart failure.
4. A client is receiving warfarin therapy for atrial fibrillation. The
client’s INR is 5.0. Which medication should the nurse anticipate
administering?
A) Protamine sulfate
B) Vitamin K
C) Atropine
D) Acetylcysteine
Answer: B
Rationale: The therapeutic INR for atrial fibrillation is typically 2.0-
3.0. An INR of 5.0 indicates a high risk for bleeding. Vitamin K is the
antidote for warfarin toxicity.
5. A nurse is assessing a client with peripheral arterial disease
(PAD). Which of the following clinical manifestations should the
nurse expect to find?
A) Dependent rubor
B) Edema
C) Brown pigmentation of the skin
D) Warm, thickened nails
Answer: A
Rationale: PAD causes diminished arterial blood flow. Classic signs
include dependent rubor (redness when the leg is lowered),
pale/elevated legs, cool skin, thickened nails, and diminished or
absent pulses.
6. A client is scheduled for a coronary angiography. Which of the
following pre-procedure assessments is the priority for the nurse?
A) Checking for allergies to iodine or shellfish
B) Assessing the client's understanding of the procedure
