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NR 304 Health assessment II Exam 2 | Actual study Questions and Answers + Expert Rationales | 2026 Updated | 100% correct

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NR 304 Health assessment II Exam 2 | Actual study Questions and Answers + Expert Rationales | 2026 Updated | 100% correct

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NR 304 Health assessment II Exam 2 | Actual
study Questions and Answers + Expert
Rationales | 2026 Updated | 100% correct

1. A nurse is assessing a patient for carpal tunnel syndrome. Which two tests should the nurse
perform?

A. Phalen test and Tinel sign test
B. Romberg test and Babinski test
C. Straight leg raise and Kernig sign
D. McMurray test and Lachman test

Correct Answer: A

Expert Rationale: The Phalen test and Tinel sign test are the two primary assessment tests for
carpal tunnel syndrome. The Phalen test involves acute flexion of the wrist at a 90-degree angle,
while the Tinel sign test involves percussion of the median nerve at the wrist. A positive Phalen
test results in numbness and burning after 60 seconds, and a positive Tinel sign produces
numbness and burning along the median nerve distribution.



2. What does the Phalen test assessment entail?

A. Extension of the wrist at 90 degrees for 30 seconds
B. Acute flexion of the wrist at 90 degrees
C. Percussion of the median nerve
D. Pronation and supination of the forearm

Correct Answer: B

Expert Rationale: The Phalen test involves acute flexion of the wrist at a 90-degree angle, which
compresses the median nerve. The patient is asked to hold this position for up to 60 seconds. A
positive test reproduces numbness and burning in the median nerve distribution, indicating
carpal tunnel syndrome.



3. What does a positive Phalen test result in?

,A. Pain in the shoulder
B. Numbness and burning after 60 seconds
C. Tingling in the feet
D. Loss of grip strength

Correct Answer: B

Expert Rationale: A positive Phalen test produces numbness and burning after approximately
60 seconds of wrist flexion at 90 degrees . These symptoms occur in the distribution of the
median nerve, affecting the thumb, index finger, middle finger, and part of the ring finger. This
indicates compression of the median nerve at the wrist.



4. What does a Tinel sign test entail?

A. Flexion of the wrist at 90 degrees
B. Percussion of the median nerve of the wrist
C. Extension of the elbow
D. Compression of the ulnar nerve

Correct Answer: B

Expert Rationale: The Tinel sign test involves percussion (tapping) of the median nerve at the
wrist . The examiner taps over the carpal tunnel area to elicit nerve irritation. A positive Tinel
sign produces tingling or numbness in the median nerve distribution, indicating carpal tunnel
syndrome.



5. What does a positive Tinel test look like?

A. Pain in the elbow
B. Percussion produces numbness and burning along the median nerve
C. Weakness in the hand
D. Decreased range of motion

Correct Answer: B

Expert Rationale: A positive Tinel sign occurs when percussion over the median nerve at the
wrist produces numbness and burning along the distribution of the median nerve . This suggests
nerve irritation or compression, consistent with carpal tunnel syndrome. The symptoms
typically radiate into the thumb, index, and middle fingers.

,6. Which of the following are risk factors for osteoporosis?

A. Female, smoking, malnutrition, and alcohol intake
B. Sedentary lifestyle, post-menopausal women, and low estrogen levels
C. Small height and smaller weight
D. All of the above

Correct Answer: D

Expert Rationale: Osteoporosis risk factors include female gender, smoking, malnutrition,
alcohol intake, sedentary lifestyle, post-menopausal status, low estrogen levels, small height,
and smaller weight . Decreased levels of calcium and vitamin D also increase risk . The 2026
National Institute of Health osteoporosis guidelines confirm that bone density testing should
begin at age 65 for women and 70 for men .



7. What low levels of vitamins increase the risk for osteoporosis?

A. Vitamin C and Vitamin A
B. Calcium and Vitamin D
C. Vitamin K and Vitamin E
D. Iron and Zinc

Correct Answer: B

Expert Rationale: Decreased amounts of calcium and vitamin D increase the risk for
osteoporosis . Calcium is essential for bone formation, and vitamin D facilitates calcium
absorption. The 2026 guidelines recommend adequate calcium and vitamin D intake for all
individuals, especially post-menopausal women.



8. What hormone, in low levels, causes an increase in osteoporosis risk?

A. Testosterone
B. Estrogen
C. Progesterone
D. Cortisol

Correct Answer: B

Expert Rationale: Low levels of estrogen increase the risk for osteoporosis . Estrogen deficiency
accelerates bone loss, particularly in post-menopausal women. This is why post-menopausal

, women are at higher risk for osteoporosis. The 2026 guidelines recommend assessing estrogen
status in women at risk for osteoporosis.



9. What is osteoporosis?

A. Inflammation of the bone marrow
B. Decrease in skeletal bone mass leading to low bone mineral density
C. Abnormal bone growth
D. Infection of the bone

Correct Answer: B

Expert Rationale: Osteoporosis is defined as a decrease in skeletal bone mass leading to low
bone mineral density (BMD) . This condition causes impaired bone density and increases the
risk of fractures. Bone density is assessed using DEXA (dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry)
scanning, which is the best predictor of future hip fractures .



10. What does osteoporosis cause?

A. Increased bone density
B. Low mineral density (BMD) and impaired bone strength
C. Bone infection
D. Joint inflammation

Correct Answer: B

Expert Rationale: Osteoporosis causes low mineral density (BMD) and impaired bone strength .
This weakens the bones and increases fracture risk. The 2026 guidelines confirm that
osteoporosis is a systemic skeletal disease characterized by low bone mass and
microarchitectural deterioration of bone tissue.



11. What are some manifestations of osteoporosis?

A. Joint pain and swelling
B. Kyphosis and shortening of the vertebral column
C. Muscle weakness and atrophy
D. Bone infections

Correct Answer: B

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