ATI Adult Medical-Surgical
Proctored Exam Bank With 200
Practice Questions & Answers
Latest 2026/2027 Graded A+ [Most
Recent]
1. A nurse is assessing a client who is 12 hours postoperative
following a colon resection. Which of the following findings should
the nurse report to the surgeon?
A. Heart rate 90/min
B. Hemoglobin 8.2 g/dL
C. Gastric pH of 3.0
D. Absent bowel sounds
Answer: B. A hemoglobin of 8.2 g/dL is significantly low and may
indicate postoperative hemorrhage, which requires immediate reporting
to the surgeon .
2. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which
laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the therapeutic
effect of this medication?
A. aPTT
B. INR
C. Platelet count
D. Bleeding time
Answer: B. Warfarin's effectiveness is monitored by the International
Normalized Ratio (INR), with a target of 2-3 for atrial fibrillation .
3. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which
assessment finding indicates the medication is having the desired
therapeutic effect?
,A. Increased heart rate
B. Clear lung sounds
C. 2+ pitting edema in lower extremities
D. Weight gain
Answer: B. Clear lung sounds indicate a reduction in fluid overload and
pulmonary congestion, which is the goal of furosemide therapy .
4. A client receiving warfarin has an INR of 4.5. What should the
nurse anticipate?
A. Administering a higher dose of warfarin
B. Holding the warfarin and possibly giving vitamin K
C. Continuing the current dose
D. Administering protamine sulfate
Answer: B. An INR of 4.5 is elevated and increases bleeding risk. The
nurse should hold the next dose and notify the provider; vitamin K may
be given as a reversal agent .
5. A client with peripheral artery disease (PAD) complains of calf
pain when walking that resolves with rest. This symptom is known
as:
A. Rest pain
B. Intermittent claudication
C. Venous stasis
D. Neuropathic pain
Answer: B. Intermittent claudication is reproducible ischemic leg pain
with exercise that is relieved by rest, a classic symptom of PAD .
🫁 Respiratory Practice Questions
6. A nurse is caring for a client with COPD who has an oxygen
saturation of 88% on room air. Which oxygen delivery device should
the nurse use?
A. Non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min
B. Nasal cannula at 2 L/min
C. Simple face mask at 10 L/min
D. Venturi mask at 40% FiO₂
,Answer: B. A low-flow nasal cannula (1-3 L/min) is preferred for clients
with COPD to avoid suppressing their hypoxic respiratory drive .
7. A client with a new tracheostomy has difficulty breathing. The
nurse notes the inner cannula is obstructed with secretions. What
should the nurse do first?
A. Suction the tracheostomy
B. Remove and replace the inner cannula
C. Notify the provider immediately
D. Deflate the cuff
Answer: B. Cleaning or replacing the inner cannula is the priority to
maintain airway patency when it is obstructed with secretions .
8. A client with suspected pulmonary embolism has a positive D-
dimer test. Which diagnostic test is most definitive for PE?
A. Chest X-ray
B. Ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan
C. CT pulmonary angiography
D. Arterial blood gas
Answer: C. CT pulmonary angiography (CTPA) is the gold standard for
diagnosing a pulmonary embolism .
9. A client with COPD is prescribed home oxygen at 2 L/min via
nasal cannula. The nurse should instruct the client that oxygen
therapy:
A. Should be used only when shortness of breath occurs
B. Should be used continuously to prevent hypoxemia
C. Is primarily to relieve dyspnea
D. Can be increased to 4 L/min during exercise
Answer: B. For clients with COPD, oxygen therapy should be used
continuously as prescribed to maintain oxygen saturation ≥88-92% and
prevent complications of chronic hypoxemia .
10. A nurse is assessing a client with a pleural effusion. Which
finding is most consistent with this diagnosis?
, A. Hyperresonance on percussion
B. Bronchial breath sounds over the affected area
C. Diminished breath sounds and dullness on percussion
D. Wheezing on expiration
Answer: C. Diminished breath sounds and dullness on percussion are
classic assessment findings for a pleural effusion .
🧠 Endocrine & Neurological Practice Questions
11. A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes insipidus. Which
of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
A. Regular insulin
B. Furosemide
C. Desmopressin
D. Lithium carbonate
Answer: C. Diabetes insipidus results from an ADH deficiency;
Desmopressin is a synthetic ADH used to replace the deficient hormone .
12. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has
hypothyroidism and is receiving levothyroxine. The nurse should
instruct the client that which supplement can interfere with
medication effectiveness?
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin D
C. Calcium
D. Iron
Answer: C. Calcium supplements can interfere with the absorption of
levothyroxine; they should not be taken within 4 hours of each other .
13. A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis of the liver. Which
of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
immediately?
A. Asterixis
B. Spider angiomas
C. Palmar erythema
D. Gynecomastia
Proctored Exam Bank With 200
Practice Questions & Answers
Latest 2026/2027 Graded A+ [Most
Recent]
1. A nurse is assessing a client who is 12 hours postoperative
following a colon resection. Which of the following findings should
the nurse report to the surgeon?
A. Heart rate 90/min
B. Hemoglobin 8.2 g/dL
C. Gastric pH of 3.0
D. Absent bowel sounds
Answer: B. A hemoglobin of 8.2 g/dL is significantly low and may
indicate postoperative hemorrhage, which requires immediate reporting
to the surgeon .
2. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which
laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the therapeutic
effect of this medication?
A. aPTT
B. INR
C. Platelet count
D. Bleeding time
Answer: B. Warfarin's effectiveness is monitored by the International
Normalized Ratio (INR), with a target of 2-3 for atrial fibrillation .
3. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which
assessment finding indicates the medication is having the desired
therapeutic effect?
,A. Increased heart rate
B. Clear lung sounds
C. 2+ pitting edema in lower extremities
D. Weight gain
Answer: B. Clear lung sounds indicate a reduction in fluid overload and
pulmonary congestion, which is the goal of furosemide therapy .
4. A client receiving warfarin has an INR of 4.5. What should the
nurse anticipate?
A. Administering a higher dose of warfarin
B. Holding the warfarin and possibly giving vitamin K
C. Continuing the current dose
D. Administering protamine sulfate
Answer: B. An INR of 4.5 is elevated and increases bleeding risk. The
nurse should hold the next dose and notify the provider; vitamin K may
be given as a reversal agent .
5. A client with peripheral artery disease (PAD) complains of calf
pain when walking that resolves with rest. This symptom is known
as:
A. Rest pain
B. Intermittent claudication
C. Venous stasis
D. Neuropathic pain
Answer: B. Intermittent claudication is reproducible ischemic leg pain
with exercise that is relieved by rest, a classic symptom of PAD .
🫁 Respiratory Practice Questions
6. A nurse is caring for a client with COPD who has an oxygen
saturation of 88% on room air. Which oxygen delivery device should
the nurse use?
A. Non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min
B. Nasal cannula at 2 L/min
C. Simple face mask at 10 L/min
D. Venturi mask at 40% FiO₂
,Answer: B. A low-flow nasal cannula (1-3 L/min) is preferred for clients
with COPD to avoid suppressing their hypoxic respiratory drive .
7. A client with a new tracheostomy has difficulty breathing. The
nurse notes the inner cannula is obstructed with secretions. What
should the nurse do first?
A. Suction the tracheostomy
B. Remove and replace the inner cannula
C. Notify the provider immediately
D. Deflate the cuff
Answer: B. Cleaning or replacing the inner cannula is the priority to
maintain airway patency when it is obstructed with secretions .
8. A client with suspected pulmonary embolism has a positive D-
dimer test. Which diagnostic test is most definitive for PE?
A. Chest X-ray
B. Ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan
C. CT pulmonary angiography
D. Arterial blood gas
Answer: C. CT pulmonary angiography (CTPA) is the gold standard for
diagnosing a pulmonary embolism .
9. A client with COPD is prescribed home oxygen at 2 L/min via
nasal cannula. The nurse should instruct the client that oxygen
therapy:
A. Should be used only when shortness of breath occurs
B. Should be used continuously to prevent hypoxemia
C. Is primarily to relieve dyspnea
D. Can be increased to 4 L/min during exercise
Answer: B. For clients with COPD, oxygen therapy should be used
continuously as prescribed to maintain oxygen saturation ≥88-92% and
prevent complications of chronic hypoxemia .
10. A nurse is assessing a client with a pleural effusion. Which
finding is most consistent with this diagnosis?
, A. Hyperresonance on percussion
B. Bronchial breath sounds over the affected area
C. Diminished breath sounds and dullness on percussion
D. Wheezing on expiration
Answer: C. Diminished breath sounds and dullness on percussion are
classic assessment findings for a pleural effusion .
🧠 Endocrine & Neurological Practice Questions
11. A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes insipidus. Which
of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
A. Regular insulin
B. Furosemide
C. Desmopressin
D. Lithium carbonate
Answer: C. Diabetes insipidus results from an ADH deficiency;
Desmopressin is a synthetic ADH used to replace the deficient hormone .
12. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has
hypothyroidism and is receiving levothyroxine. The nurse should
instruct the client that which supplement can interfere with
medication effectiveness?
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin D
C. Calcium
D. Iron
Answer: C. Calcium supplements can interfere with the absorption of
levothyroxine; they should not be taken within 4 hours of each other .
13. A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis of the liver. Which
of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
immediately?
A. Asterixis
B. Spider angiomas
C. Palmar erythema
D. Gynecomastia
