Chamberlain University NR 325 Exam 1 (pdf) | 2026/2027 | Adult
Health II Q&A
1. A nurse is assessing a patient who has been diagnosed with benign
prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). Which of the following findings is most
consistent with this condition?
A) Polyuria and polydipsia
B) Dysuria and nocturia
C) Hematuria and flank pain
D) Oliguria and edema
Correct Answer: Dysuria and nocturia
Rationale: Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) causes obstruction of the
urethra, leading to symptoms such as dysuria (painful urination), nocturia,
urinary frequency, and a weak urinary stream. Polyuria and polydipsia are
associated with diabetes mellitus, hematuria with kidney stones or infection,
and oliguria with renal failure.
2. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a patient with suspected
renal insufficiency. Which of the following laboratory values is the most
sensitive indicator of glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?
A) Serum creatinine
B) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
C) Serum potassium
D) Serum sodium
Correct Answer: Serum creatinine
Rationale: Serum creatinine is the most sensitive and specific indicator of
GFR because it is produced at a constant rate and is not affected by dietary
,protein intake or hydration status. BUN can be affected by protein intake and
hydration. Potassium and sodium reflect electrolyte balance but are not
direct measures of GFR.
3. A nurse is preparing a patient for a creatinine clearance test. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take?
A) Have the patient void and discard the urine, then collect all urine for 24
hours
B) Collect a sterile urine specimen at the beginning of the test
C) Instruct the patient to fast for 8 hours before the test
D) Obtain a catheterized urine specimen
Correct Answer: Have the patient void and discard the urine, then collect all
urine for 24 hours
Rationale: A creatinine clearance test requires a 24-hour urine collection. The
patient should void and discard the first specimen, then collect all
subsequent urine for 24 hours. The test measures the amount of creatinine
cleared from the blood by the kidneys.
4. A nurse is assessing a patient with a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which of
the following findings is most consistent with pyelonephritis?
A) Suprapubic pain and urinary frequency
B) Flank pain and fever
C) Dysuria and hematuria
D) Polyuria and polydipsia
Correct Answer: Flank pain and fever
,Rationale: Pyelonephritis is an infection of the renal pelvis and kidney tissue.
It typically presents with flank pain (costovertebral angle tenderness), fever,
chills, and nausea. Suprapubic pain and dysuria are more consistent with
cystitis or urethritis.
5. A nurse is providing teaching to a patient about preventing kidney stones.
Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A) "Limit your fluid intake to 1 liter per day."
B) "Increase your intake of calcium-rich foods."
C) "Drink at least 2 to 3 liters of fluid per day."
D) "Avoid all foods containing calcium."
Correct Answer: "Drink at least 2 to 3 liters of fluid per day."
Rationale: Increased fluid intake helps dilute urine and prevent the formation
of kidney stones. A fluid intake of 2 to 3 liters per day is recommended.
Calcium restriction is not generally recommended, as adequate calcium
intake can help bind oxalate in the gut.
6. A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is at risk for which of the
following electrolyte imbalances?
A) Hypokalemia
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Hyponatremia
D) Hypocalcemia
Correct Answer: Hyperkalemia
Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys lose their ability to excrete
potassium effectively, leading to hyperkalemia. This can cause life-
, threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring serum potassium levels is
essential.
7. A nurse is caring for a patient receiving hemodialysis. Which of the
following assessments is the priority immediately after dialysis?
A) Pain level
B) Blood pressure and weight
C) Laboratory results
D) Nutritional status
Correct Answer: Blood pressure and weight
Rationale: After hemodialysis, it is important to monitor the patient's blood
pressure and weight to assess fluid removal and hemodynamic stability.
Hypotension is a common complication. Other assessments are important
but secondary.
8. A nurse is assessing a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of
the following findings is most consistent with this condition?
A) Blood glucose 250 mg/dL, pH 7.35, bicarbonate 24 mEq/L
B) Blood glucose 400 mg/dL, pH 7.25, bicarbonate 14 mEq/L
C) Blood glucose 180 mg/dL, pH 7.45, bicarbonate 30 mEq/L
D) Blood glucose 300 mg/dL, pH 7.50, bicarbonate 32 mEq/L
Correct Answer: Blood glucose 400 mg/dL, pH 7.25, bicarbonate 14 mEq/L
Rationale: Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is characterized by severe
hyperglycemia (blood glucose > 250 mg/dL), metabolic acidosis (pH < 7.30),
and low bicarbonate (< 15 mEq/L). The patient may also have ketones in the
urine and blood.
Health II Q&A
1. A nurse is assessing a patient who has been diagnosed with benign
prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). Which of the following findings is most
consistent with this condition?
A) Polyuria and polydipsia
B) Dysuria and nocturia
C) Hematuria and flank pain
D) Oliguria and edema
Correct Answer: Dysuria and nocturia
Rationale: Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) causes obstruction of the
urethra, leading to symptoms such as dysuria (painful urination), nocturia,
urinary frequency, and a weak urinary stream. Polyuria and polydipsia are
associated with diabetes mellitus, hematuria with kidney stones or infection,
and oliguria with renal failure.
2. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a patient with suspected
renal insufficiency. Which of the following laboratory values is the most
sensitive indicator of glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?
A) Serum creatinine
B) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
C) Serum potassium
D) Serum sodium
Correct Answer: Serum creatinine
Rationale: Serum creatinine is the most sensitive and specific indicator of
GFR because it is produced at a constant rate and is not affected by dietary
,protein intake or hydration status. BUN can be affected by protein intake and
hydration. Potassium and sodium reflect electrolyte balance but are not
direct measures of GFR.
3. A nurse is preparing a patient for a creatinine clearance test. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take?
A) Have the patient void and discard the urine, then collect all urine for 24
hours
B) Collect a sterile urine specimen at the beginning of the test
C) Instruct the patient to fast for 8 hours before the test
D) Obtain a catheterized urine specimen
Correct Answer: Have the patient void and discard the urine, then collect all
urine for 24 hours
Rationale: A creatinine clearance test requires a 24-hour urine collection. The
patient should void and discard the first specimen, then collect all
subsequent urine for 24 hours. The test measures the amount of creatinine
cleared from the blood by the kidneys.
4. A nurse is assessing a patient with a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which of
the following findings is most consistent with pyelonephritis?
A) Suprapubic pain and urinary frequency
B) Flank pain and fever
C) Dysuria and hematuria
D) Polyuria and polydipsia
Correct Answer: Flank pain and fever
,Rationale: Pyelonephritis is an infection of the renal pelvis and kidney tissue.
It typically presents with flank pain (costovertebral angle tenderness), fever,
chills, and nausea. Suprapubic pain and dysuria are more consistent with
cystitis or urethritis.
5. A nurse is providing teaching to a patient about preventing kidney stones.
Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A) "Limit your fluid intake to 1 liter per day."
B) "Increase your intake of calcium-rich foods."
C) "Drink at least 2 to 3 liters of fluid per day."
D) "Avoid all foods containing calcium."
Correct Answer: "Drink at least 2 to 3 liters of fluid per day."
Rationale: Increased fluid intake helps dilute urine and prevent the formation
of kidney stones. A fluid intake of 2 to 3 liters per day is recommended.
Calcium restriction is not generally recommended, as adequate calcium
intake can help bind oxalate in the gut.
6. A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is at risk for which of the
following electrolyte imbalances?
A) Hypokalemia
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Hyponatremia
D) Hypocalcemia
Correct Answer: Hyperkalemia
Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys lose their ability to excrete
potassium effectively, leading to hyperkalemia. This can cause life-
, threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring serum potassium levels is
essential.
7. A nurse is caring for a patient receiving hemodialysis. Which of the
following assessments is the priority immediately after dialysis?
A) Pain level
B) Blood pressure and weight
C) Laboratory results
D) Nutritional status
Correct Answer: Blood pressure and weight
Rationale: After hemodialysis, it is important to monitor the patient's blood
pressure and weight to assess fluid removal and hemodynamic stability.
Hypotension is a common complication. Other assessments are important
but secondary.
8. A nurse is assessing a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of
the following findings is most consistent with this condition?
A) Blood glucose 250 mg/dL, pH 7.35, bicarbonate 24 mEq/L
B) Blood glucose 400 mg/dL, pH 7.25, bicarbonate 14 mEq/L
C) Blood glucose 180 mg/dL, pH 7.45, bicarbonate 30 mEq/L
D) Blood glucose 300 mg/dL, pH 7.50, bicarbonate 32 mEq/L
Correct Answer: Blood glucose 400 mg/dL, pH 7.25, bicarbonate 14 mEq/L
Rationale: Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is characterized by severe
hyperglycemia (blood glucose > 250 mg/dL), metabolic acidosis (pH < 7.30),
and low bicarbonate (< 15 mEq/L). The patient may also have ketones in the
urine and blood.
